CRISC · Current ISACA exam outline · Updated 2026
Free CRISC Practice Exam (2026)
Full-length mock exams with the same number of questions and time as the real CRISC exam. Think-like-a-risk-practitioner questions across all 4 domains, answers explained, and your score by domain.
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150 questions · 4 hours · same as the real exam
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Questions 1–10Page 1 of 15
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Question 1Governance
A regional bank plans to launch a digital lending service within 18 months. The CEO asks the risk practitioner to support the initiative. What should the risk practitioner do FIRST?
Correct answer: C. Review how the initiative fits strategic objectives and risk appetite
Risk management exists to support business objectives, so the practitioner first needs to understand how the initiative relates to strategy and risk appetite. Selecting a vendor or drafting controls is premature until the risks of the initiative are understood in business terms.
Risk management exists to support business objectives, so the practitioner first needs to understand how the initiative relates to strategy and risk appetite. Selecting a vendor or drafting controls is premature until the risks of the initiative are understood in business terms.
Question 2Governance
A retail company's IT department rates risk on a 1-to-3 scale with its own impact categories. The enterprise risk function uses a 1-to-5 scale with financial, operational and reputational criteria. Senior management cannot compare IT risk with other business risk. What is the BEST action for the risk practitioner?
Correct answer: B. Align IT risk criteria with the enterprise risk scales
Integrating IT risk into ERM requires a common language, so IT impact and likelihood criteria should be aligned with the enterprise criteria. Mechanically rescaling the scores keeps the different impact definitions, so the results still would not be comparable.
Integrating IT risk into ERM requires a common language, so IT impact and likelihood criteria should be aligned with the enterprise criteria. Mechanically rescaling the scores keeps the different impact definitions, so the results still would not be comparable.
Question 3Risk Assessment
In a risk register entry, which of the following BEST describes a vulnerability?
Correct answer: D. A weakness in a process, system or control that a threat could exploit
A vulnerability is a weakness that a threat can exploit to harm an asset. The option describing a person or natural event is the threat itself, which is a separate component of the risk.
A vulnerability is a weakness that a threat can exploit to harm an asset. The option describing a person or natural event is the threat itself, which is a separate component of the risk.
Question 4Risk Assessment
A regional hospital network is rating the likelihood that ransomware will disrupt its patient scheduling system. The security team has supplied industry attack statistics. Which of the following should the risk practitioner consider MOST when estimating likelihood for this organization?
Correct answer: A. Threat actor capability and intent against the organization's own vulnerabilities
Likelihood depends on whether a capable, motivated threat source can exploit weaknesses that actually exist in this organization, which is the NIST SP 800-30 view. Industry-wide incident counts are useful context but do not reflect the hospital's own exposure, and restoration cost relates to impact rather than likelihood.
Likelihood depends on whether a capable, motivated threat source can exploit weaknesses that actually exist in this organization, which is the NIST SP 800-30 view. Industry-wide incident counts are useful context but do not reflect the hospital's own exposure, and restoration cost relates to impact rather than likelihood.
Question 5Risk Response & Reporting
A regional credit union estimates that outages of its marketing website cause about $15,000 per year in expected losses. The only proposed control, a redundant hosting setup, would cost $60,000 per year. The risk is within the board-approved risk appetite. Which response is MOST appropriate?
Correct answer: B. Recommend that the risk owner formally accept the risk
The control costs four times the expected loss and the risk is already within appetite, so acceptance by the risk owner is the most cost-effective response. Implementing the redundant setup would spend far more on the control than the risk is expected to cost.
The control costs four times the expected loss and the risk is already within appetite, so acceptance by the risk owner is the most cost-effective response. Implementing the redundant setup would spend far more on the control than the risk is expected to cost.
Question 6Risk Response & Reporting
A regional credit union has adopted NIST SP 800-53 as its control catalog. The IT manager proposes implementing every control in the high baseline to be safe. What should the risk practitioner recommend FIRST?
Correct answer: A. Tailor the baseline using the results of the risk assessment
Framework baselines are starting points that should be tailored to the organization's assessed risks, appetite and business needs. Implementing every high baseline control without that analysis invites over-control and wasted cost. Peer benchmarking does not reflect the credit union's own risk profile.
Framework baselines are starting points that should be tailored to the organization's assessed risks, appetite and business needs. Implementing every high baseline control without that analysis invites over-control and wasted cost. Peer benchmarking does not reflect the credit union's own risk profile.
Question 7Risk Response & Reporting
A logistics company approved a plan to replace its legacy warehouse system to reduce a high operational risk. The plan lists one owner and a single completion date 14 months away, with no interim checkpoints. What is the GREATEST concern for the risk practitioner?
Correct answer: D. Delays may not be detected until the final deadline is missed.
Without interim milestones, progress cannot be tracked, so slippage stays hidden while the risk remains high for the full period. The owner's skills could matter, but the plan's structure prevents anyone from knowing whether it is on track at all.
Without interim milestones, progress cannot be tracked, so slippage stays hidden while the risk remains high for the full period. The owner's skills could matter, but the plan's structure prevents anyone from knowing whether it is on track at all.
Question 8Technology & Security
A manufacturing company learns that vendor support for the operating system on several plant control servers ended last year. IT says the servers still run without problems, so no replacement was planned. Which is the BEST way to prevent this situation in the future?
Correct answer: A. Track vendor support dates in a technology roadmap and plan replacements early
A technology roadmap that tracks lifecycle and support dates lets the enterprise plan and fund replacements before systems become unsupported. Buying extended support for everything is costly and only delays the problem instead of managing it through planning.
A technology roadmap that tracks lifecycle and support dates lets the enterprise plan and fund replacements before systems become unsupported. Buying extended support for everything is costly and only delays the problem instead of managing it through planning.
Question 9Technology & Security
A regional grocery chain finds that an unauthorized change to its pricing database caused shelf prices to differ from checkout prices for two days. No customer data was exposed, and all systems stayed online. When recording this event in the risk register, the impact should be classified PRIMARILY as a loss of:
Correct answer: C. integrity
The pricing data was altered without authorization, so the accuracy and trustworthiness of the information, which is integrity, was harmed. Availability is tempting because prices were wrong for two days, but the systems stayed online and the data could be accessed the whole time.
The pricing data was altered without authorization, so the accuracy and trustworthiness of the information, which is integrity, was harmed. Availability is tempting because prices were wrong for two days, but the systems stayed online and the data could be accessed the whole time.
Question 10Governance
At an investment firm, the business strategy focuses on rapid growth in new markets. The IT strategy, written separately, focuses mainly on cutting costs. Which of the following is the GREATEST concern?
Correct answer: A. IT investments may not support the firm's business objectives
When IT strategy is not aligned with business strategy, technology investments may fail to enable the objectives the organization is pursuing. Business units buying their own technology is a possible symptom, but the greater concern is the misalignment itself.
When IT strategy is not aligned with business strategy, technology investments may fail to enable the objectives the organization is pursuing. Business units buying their own technology is a possible symptom, but the greater concern is the misalignment itself.
Question 11Governance
At a regional bank, the IT security manager designs and operates access controls and reports their effectiveness directly to the board. No risk or compliance function reviews this reporting. What should the risk practitioner recommend?
Correct answer: D. Introduce second line review and challenge of the reporting
In the three lines model, the second line provides expertise, monitoring and challenge, so the board does not rely only on management's self-assessment. Moving control operation to internal audit would compromise the third line's independence.
In the three lines model, the second line provides expertise, monitoring and challenge, so the board does not rely only on management's self-assessment. Moving control operation to internal audit would compromise the third line's independence.
Question 12Risk Assessment
A regional hospital's risk practitioner learns that patient records are stored on an unpatched file server. The server can be reached from the guest Wi-Fi network. Which statement BEST expresses this as a risk for the risk register?
Correct answer: B. An outside attacker could use guest Wi-Fi to exploit the server and expose patient records, leading to fines.
A useful risk statement links a threat, a vulnerability, an affected asset and a business impact. The option about missing patches and weak segmentation describes only vulnerabilities, so it does not tell management what could happen or why it matters.
A useful risk statement links a threat, a vulnerability, an affected asset and a business impact. The option about missing patches and weak segmentation describes only vulnerabilities, so it does not tell management what could happen or why it matters.
Question 13Risk Assessment
A retail bank's risk register shows two risks with the same likelihood and impact ratings. One is a gradual decline in branch system performance. The other is a payment fraud attack that could drain accounts within hours of starting. Which additional factor should the risk practitioner consider to tell them apart?
Correct answer: C. Risk velocity, or how fast the impact would arrive
Risk velocity describes how quickly an event's impact is felt, and a fast-moving risk leaves less time to detect and respond, so it may need higher priority or faster controls. The number of mapped controls describes the response, not the nature of the exposure.
Risk velocity describes how quickly an event's impact is felt, and a fast-moving risk leaves less time to detect and respond, so it may need higher priority or faster controls. The number of mapped controls describes the response, not the nature of the exposure.
Question 14Risk Response & Reporting
A logistics company is considering a new service that would store driver biometric data in a country with strict privacy laws. The assessment shows the risk far exceeds appetite, no insurer will cover it, and the required controls would make the service unprofitable. What should the risk practitioner recommend?
Correct answer: B. Avoid the risk by not launching the service there
When risk exceeds appetite and cannot be mitigated or transferred at a reasonable cost, avoidance is the appropriate response. Launching with partial controls would leave the organization operating above its appetite.
When risk exceeds appetite and cannot be mitigated or transferred at a reasonable cost, avoidance is the appropriate response. Launching with partial controls would leave the organization operating above its appetite.
Question 15Risk Response & Reporting
A manufacturing company maintains a risk register and a separate control inventory, but the two have never been linked. What is the PRIMARY benefit of mapping controls to the risks in the register?
Correct answer: D. It reveals risks with weak coverage and controls that serve no risk
Mapping controls to risks shows where risks are not adequately covered and where controls exist without a clear risk to address. This supports better control selection and removal of redundant controls. Mapping does not by itself prove regulatory compliance or reduce the need for testing.
Mapping controls to risks shows where risks are not adequately covered and where controls exist without a clear risk to address. This supports better control selection and removal of redundant controls. Mapping does not by itself prove regulatory compliance or reduce the need for testing.
Question 16Risk Response & Reporting
Which of the following roles is ultimately accountable for ensuring that a risk action plan is implemented?
Correct answer: B. The risk owner for the related business area
The risk owner is accountable for the risk and for making sure the agreed response is carried out. The risk practitioner tracks progress and reports status, but does not own the risk or the actions.
The risk owner is accountable for the risk and for making sure the agreed response is carried out. The risk practitioner tracks progress and reports status, but does not own the risk or the actions.
Question 17Technology & Security
A risk review finds that several departments at a logistics firm use cloud tools that IT never approved. Staff say the formal approval process takes months. Which is the MOST effective long-term response?
Correct answer: C. Create a faster intake process to vet new tools against business needs
Shadow IT often grows when the approved path is too slow to meet business needs, so a quicker, risk-based intake process removes the root cause. Blocking services treats the symptom and tends to push users toward other workarounds.
Shadow IT often grows when the approved path is too slow to meet business needs, so a quicker, risk-based intake process removes the root cause. Blocking services treats the symptom and tends to push users toward other workarounds.
Question 18Technology & Security
At a software company, all developers have standing write access to production databases so they can resolve incidents quickly. The CTO argues that removing this access would slow recovery. What is the BEST recommendation from the risk practitioner?
Correct answer: A. Replace standing access with approved, time-limited elevation that is logged
Approved, time-limited and logged elevation applies least privilege while still letting developers fix incidents when needed. Removing all access is tempting, but it ignores the business need and could harm recovery objectives. Accepting the risk is a decision for the risk owner, not the practitioner.
Approved, time-limited and logged elevation applies least privilege while still letting developers fix incidents when needed. Removing all access is tempting, but it ignores the business need and could harm recovery objectives. Accepting the risk is a decision for the risk owner, not the practitioner.
Question 19Governance
Which of the following BEST describes how enterprise risk management supports organizational strategy?
Correct answer: D. It enables informed decisions to pursue objectives within appetite
Risk management helps leaders weigh risk and reward so they can pursue objectives while staying within the risk appetite. It does not aim to eliminate all threats, because some risk must be taken to achieve goals.
Risk management helps leaders weigh risk and reward so they can pursue objectives while staying within the risk appetite. It does not aim to eliminate all threats, because some risk must be taken to achieve goals.
Question 20Governance
Who should be responsible for setting an enterprise's risk appetite?
Correct answer: A. The board, with input from senior management
Risk appetite is a governance decision made by the board, usually with input from senior management, and reflects how much risk the enterprise will accept to pursue its objectives. The chief risk officer facilitates and drafts the appetite statement but does not own the decision.
Risk appetite is a governance decision made by the board, usually with input from senior management, and reflects how much risk the enterprise will accept to pursue its objectives. The chief risk officer facilitates and drafts the appetite statement but does not own the decision.
Question 21Risk Assessment
A payments company receives a threat intelligence report. It says a criminal group is attacking firms in the sector through flaws in a popular remote access tool. What should the risk practitioner do FIRST?
Correct answer: C. Determine whether the company uses the tool and how exposed its systems are.
Threat intelligence is an input to risk identification, so the first step is to see whether the threat is relevant to the company's environment. Disabling remote access is a response decision that would be premature and could disrupt the business before the exposure is understood.
Threat intelligence is an input to risk identification, so the first step is to see whether the threat is relevant to the company's environment. Disabling remote access is a response decision that would be premature and could disrupt the business before the exposure is understood.
Question 22Risk Assessment
Which of the following BEST describes risk evaluation within a risk assessment based on ISO 31000?
Correct answer: D. Comparing analysis results with risk criteria to support decisions
In ISO 31000, risk evaluation compares the results of risk analysis with established risk criteria to decide whether and how to act. Understanding the nature and level of risk is risk analysis, which comes before evaluation, and choosing options to modify risk is risk treatment.
In ISO 31000, risk evaluation compares the results of risk analysis with established risk criteria to decide whether and how to act. Understanding the nature and level of risk is risk analysis, which comes before evaluation, and choosing options to modify risk is risk treatment.
Question 23Risk Response & Reporting
A hospital buys a cyber insurance policy that covers breach notification costs, forensic investigation and legal defense. Which of the following remains with the hospital after the policy is in place?
Correct answer: D. Accountability for protecting patient data
Insurance transfers part of the financial impact, but accountability for protecting data and the reputational harm of a breach stay with the organization. The notification, forensic and legal costs are exactly what the policy was bought to cover.
Insurance transfers part of the financial impact, but accountability for protecting data and the reputational harm of a breach stay with the organization. The notification, forensic and legal costs are exactly what the policy was bought to cover.
Question 24Risk Response & Reporting
A payment processor must meet PCI DSS, ISO/IEC 27001 certification and several customer contract requirements. Each compliance team tests its own controls, and control owners complain about repeated evidence requests. What is the BEST approach?
Correct answer: B. Build a common control set mapped to all requirements
A common control framework maps each control once to every requirement it satisfies, so one test produces evidence for many obligations. Adding testers treats the symptom and keeps the duplication. Ignoring contract requirements would create legal and customer risk.
A common control framework maps each control once to every requirement it satisfies, so one test produces evidence for many obligations. Adding testers treats the symptom and keeps the duplication. Ignoring contract requirements would create legal and customer risk.
Question 25Risk Response & Reporting
A risk practitioner is combining incident data from four regional offices for a quarterly enterprise report. Two regions count only incidents that stopped operations, while the others count every reported issue. What should the risk practitioner do FIRST?
Correct answer: C. Agree on a common incident definition and normalize the data.
Aggregated data is only meaningful when every source measures the same thing, so a common definition must be applied before the numbers are combined. Separate reporting with a footnote avoids the problem but still gives management no reliable enterprise view.
Aggregated data is only meaningful when every source measures the same thing, so a common definition must be applied before the numbers are combined. Separate reporting with a footnote avoids the problem but still gives management no reliable enterprise view.
Question 26Technology & Security
At a regional bank, emergency changes have grown from 5% to 30% of all production changes over the past year. Most are implemented without any later review. Which is the GREATEST concern?
Correct answer: D. Unauthorized or faulty changes may reach production undetected
Without review, the emergency path becomes a way around change control, so unauthorized or faulty changes can affect production without anyone noticing. Fewer board meetings or format issues are administrative concerns with much lower business impact.
Without review, the emergency path becomes a way around change control, so unauthorized or faulty changes can affect production without anyone noticing. Fewer board meetings or format issues are administrative concerns with much lower business impact.
Question 27Technology & Security
A small nonprofit has one finance clerk who can create vendors, enter invoices and release payments. The budget does not allow hiring more staff this year. What is the BEST way to reduce the risk created by this arrangement?
Correct answer: C. Have a manager independently review vendor changes and payments each week
When duties cannot be separated, an independent review by another person is a practical compensating control for the segregation of duties gap. Outsourcing could separate duties, but it is a large and costly change when a simple compensating control can bring the risk within tolerance.
When duties cannot be separated, an independent review by another person is a practical compensating control for the segregation of duties gap. Outsourcing could separate duties, but it is a large and costly change when a simple compensating control can bring the risk within tolerance.
Question 28Governance
A risk assessment at a logistics company found that the fleet tracking system has no failover capability. The IT manager says the risk is acceptable. However, the system directly supports the operations division's delivery commitments to customers. Who should decide whether to accept this risk?
Correct answer: B. The operations executive who owns delivery commitments
The risk owner is the business manager accountable for the objectives the risk affects, so the operations executive should make the acceptance decision. The IT manager may own the system or its controls but is not accountable for the business impact of an outage.
The risk owner is the business manager accountable for the objectives the risk affects, so the operations executive should make the acceptance decision. The IT manager may own the system or its controls but is not accountable for the business impact of an outage.
Question 29Governance
A logistics company's board has stated a low appetite for service disruption. The operations director asks how much deviation from the 99.9% uptime target is acceptable for the order tracking system. Which of the following would BEST provide this guidance?
Correct answer: C. A defined risk tolerance for system availability
Risk tolerance sets the acceptable variation around a specific objective, such as an uptime target, and turns the board's appetite into a measurable limit. The hosting agreement reflects what a vendor has committed to, not how much deviation the organization itself is willing to accept.
Risk tolerance sets the acceptable variation around a specific objective, such as an uptime target, and turns the board's appetite into a measurable limit. The hosting agreement reflects what a vendor has committed to, not how much deviation the organization itself is willing to accept.
Question 30Risk Assessment
A logistics firm's risk register lists many external cyber threats but no internal ones. In a workshop, the HR director mentions that several system administrators with broad access will be laid off next quarter. What is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?
Correct answer: A. Add an insider threat scenario and review it with the affected process owners.
The layoffs create a credible internal threat source that the register does not capture, so the practitioner should document it as a scenario and validate it with the owners. Revoking access early is a response decision for management and could disrupt operations before the risk is assessed.
The layoffs create a credible internal threat source that the register does not capture, so the practitioner should document it as a scenario and validate it with the owners. Revoking access early is a response decision for management and could disrupt operations before the risk is assessed.
Question 31Risk Assessment
An insurance company's IT department has drafted a business impact analysis that lists recovery priorities for its claims and billing processes. Before the results are used to set recovery objectives, who should validate them?
Correct answer: B. The business process owners of the claims and billing functions
Process owners understand the operational, financial and customer impact of a disruption, so they are best placed to confirm the BIA results. IT managers know the systems but cannot judge business impact, and internal audit should stay independent rather than sign off on management's analysis.
Process owners understand the operational, financial and customer impact of a disruption, so they are best placed to confirm the BIA results. IT managers know the systems but cannot judge business impact, and internal audit should stay independent rather than sign off on management's analysis.
Question 32Risk Response & Reporting
An IT operations manager reports that a legacy server supporting the billing process cannot be patched until the vendor releases an upgrade next year. The manager wants to record the risk as accepted. Who should approve the acceptance?
Correct answer: A. The owner of the billing process
Risk acceptance should be approved by the risk owner, the business manager accountable for the process the risk affects. The chief information security officer can advise on the exposure but does not own the business consequences for billing.
Risk acceptance should be approved by the risk owner, the business manager accountable for the process the risk affects. The chief information security officer can advise on the exposure but does not own the business consequences for billing.
Question 33Risk Response & Reporting
A research lab has badge readers on its server room door, but camera footage shows employees often let others follow them in without badging. Which control would MOST effectively prevent this?
Correct answer: C. A mantrap that admits one authorized person at a time
Tailgating is a failure at the point of entry, so a physical preventive control such as a mantrap stops it directly. Footage review and log comparisons are detective and only find the problem after access has occurred. A reminder email relies on the same staff behavior that is already failing.
Tailgating is a failure at the point of entry, so a physical preventive control such as a mantrap stops it directly. Footage review and log comparisons are detective and only find the problem after access has occurred. A reminder email relies on the same staff behavior that is already failing.
Question 34Risk Response & Reporting
A media company keeps separate risk spreadsheets in each department. The same vendor risk appears in three files with three different ratings and owners. Which of the following is the BEST way to improve the reliability of enterprise risk reporting?
Correct answer: D. Establish a central risk register as the authoritative source.
A single authoritative register removes conflicting versions and gives every report the same data, ratings and owners. Monthly reconciliation of separate files treats the symptom and still leaves room for conflicting records.
A single authoritative register removes conflicting versions and gives every report the same data, ratings and owners. Monthly reconciliation of separate files treats the symptom and still leaves room for conflicting records.
Question 35Governance
Which of the following is the PRIMARY risk management responsibility of the board of directors?
Correct answer: D. Approving risk appetite and overseeing risk management
The board sets direction by approving the risk appetite and overseeing how management handles risk. Selecting controls and maintaining the risk register are management and risk function activities, not board duties.
The board sets direction by approving the risk appetite and overseeing how management handles risk. Selecting controls and maintaining the risk register are management and risk function activities, not board duties.
Question 36Technology & Security
An online retailer suffers slowdowns during holiday sales, even though monitoring shows average server use of about 45%. Which is the BEST recommendation to improve capacity management?
Correct answer: A. Base capacity plans on business forecasts of peak demand
Average utilization hides peaks, and capacity plans should be driven by business forecasts such as expected sales events. Doubling all capacity may work but is not risk-based and wastes money on systems that do not need it.
Average utilization hides peaks, and capacity plans should be driven by business forecasts such as expected sales events. Doubling all capacity may work but is not risk-based and wastes money on systems that do not need it.
Question 37Technology & Security
Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of the Govern function in NIST Cybersecurity Framework (CSF) 2.0?
Correct answer: B. Setting, communicating and monitoring cybersecurity risk strategy and policy
Govern, added in CSF 2.0, covers establishing, communicating and monitoring the organization's cybersecurity risk management strategy, expectations and policy. Understanding current risks to assets and suppliers is the Identify function, which is tempting because both deal with risk, but Identify does not set strategy or policy.
Govern, added in CSF 2.0, covers establishing, communicating and monitoring the organization's cybersecurity risk management strategy, expectations and policy. Understanding current risks to assets and suppliers is the Identify function, which is tempting because both deal with risk, but Identify does not set strategy or policy.
Question 38Governance
Which of the following BEST describes risk capacity?
Correct answer: D. The maximum risk the enterprise can absorb and still survive
Risk capacity is the most risk or loss an enterprise can bear before its survival or ability to meet core obligations is threatened. The amount of risk the board is willing to accept is risk appetite, which should be set below capacity.
Risk capacity is the most risk or loss an enterprise can bear before its survival or ability to meet core obligations is threatened. The amount of risk the board is willing to accept is risk appetite, which should be set below capacity.
Question 39Risk Assessment
A quarterly vulnerability scan at a manufacturing company reports 400 high-severity findings. The IT manager asks the risk practitioner to add every finding to the enterprise risk register. What is the BEST response?
Correct answer: C. Consolidate the findings into risks stated in terms of business impact.
The enterprise risk register should express risk in business terms that leaders can act on, while detailed findings stay in the vulnerability management process. Adding 400 separate technical entries would bury the real business risks and make the register hard to use.
The enterprise risk register should express risk in business terms that leaders can act on, while detailed findings stay in the vulnerability management process. Adding 400 separate technical entries would bury the real business risks and make the register hard to use.
Question 40Governance
A manufacturer is rolling out a new risk management process across its plants. Several plant managers say they are unsure who must approve risk responses and who only needs to be informed. What should the risk practitioner recommend FIRST?
Correct answer: B. Define and communicate a RACI chart for the risk process
A RACI chart clearly shows who is responsible, accountable, consulted and informed for each activity, which directly resolves the confusion. Routing all approvals to the CRO removes accountability from business owners and does not fix the underlying role gap.
A RACI chart clearly shows who is responsible, accountable, consulted and informed for each activity, which directly resolves the confusion. Routing all approvals to the CRO removes accountability from business owners and does not fix the underlying role gap.
Question 41Risk Assessment
A logistics company's BIA states that its shipment tracking process can be unavailable for no more than 24 hours before customer contracts are breached. The IT recovery plan sets a 36-hour recovery time objective for the supporting application. What is the GREATEST concern?
Correct answer: C. The recovery time objective exceeds the maximum tolerable downtime
The RTO must be shorter than the maximum tolerable downtime, so a 36-hour RTO against a 24-hour limit means the business would suffer unacceptable harm even if recovery goes to plan. An untested plan is also a concern, but even a perfectly tested plan with this RTO would fail the business requirement.
The RTO must be shorter than the maximum tolerable downtime, so a 36-hour RTO against a 24-hour limit means the business would suffer unacceptable harm even if recovery goes to plan. An untested plan is also a concern, but even a perfectly tested plan with this RTO would fail the business requirement.
Question 42Risk Response & Reporting
Which of the following BEST describes the primary accountability of a control owner?
Correct answer: A. Ensuring the control operates effectively as designed
A control owner is responsible for making sure the control is designed and operating effectively day to day. Choosing the risk response belongs to the risk owner, who is accountable for the risk itself.
A control owner is responsible for making sure the control is designed and operating effectively day to day. Choosing the risk response belongs to the risk owner, who is accountable for the risk itself.
Question 43Risk Response & Reporting
A hospital runs an imaging device on an old operating system that the vendor no longer patches. Replacing the device will not be possible for two years. What is the BEST recommendation?
Correct answer: B. Isolate the device on a restricted network segment
When the primary control, patching, is not feasible, a compensating control such as network segmentation reduces exposure while the device stays in service. Disconnecting the device would stop a clinical service for two years. Upgrading without vendor approval could break a regulated medical device.
When the primary control, patching, is not feasible, a compensating control such as network segmentation reduces exposure while the device stays in service. Disconnecting the device would stop a clinical service for two years. Upgrading without vendor approval could break a regulated medical device.
Question 44Risk Response & Reporting
Which of the following is the BEST example of a leading key risk indicator for the risk of a data breach?
Correct answer: A. Percentage of critical servers with overdue security patches
Overdue patches point to growing exposure before a breach happens, which is what makes an indicator leading. Breach counts, response costs and complaints are lagging measures because they only show the result after the event has occurred.
Overdue patches point to growing exposure before a breach happens, which is what makes an indicator leading. Breach counts, response costs and complaints are lagging measures because they only show the result after the event has occurred.
Question 45Governance
A mid-sized healthcare provider plans to adopt a risk management framework. The CIO prefers NIST CSF because the IT team already uses it, while the enterprise risk function follows ISO 31000. What should the risk practitioner recommend FIRST?
Correct answer: C. Define what the organization needs the framework to achieve
Framework selection or tailoring should start from business objectives, regulatory needs and how the framework will fit with enterprise risk management. Choosing a framework because one team already knows it skips that analysis and may leave IT risk disconnected from enterprise risk.
Framework selection or tailoring should start from business objectives, regulatory needs and how the framework will fit with enterprise risk management. Choosing a framework because one team already knows it skips that analysis and may leave IT risk disconnected from enterprise risk.
Question 46Technology & Security
A hospital's scheduling system has crashed on the first Monday of each of the last four months. Each time, the service desk restored service within an hour by restarting the server. What should the risk practitioner recommend?
Correct answer: B. Raise a problem record to identify and remove the root cause
Repeated incidents with the same symptoms point to an underlying problem, and problem management exists to find and fix the root cause. A scheduled restart may hide the symptom but leaves the real cause, and its risk, in place.
Repeated incidents with the same symptoms point to an underlying problem, and problem management exists to find and fix the root cause. A scheduled restart may hide the symptom but leaves the real cause, and its risk, in place.
Question 47Technology & Security
A logistics company pursuing ISO/IEC 27001 certification has copied every control from ISO/IEC 27002 into its policy set without further analysis. What should the risk practitioner recommend FIRST?
Correct answer: D. Select controls based on the results of the information security risk assessment
ISO/IEC 27001 expects controls to be chosen through risk assessment and treatment, with the Statement of Applicability justifying what is included or excluded. Implementing everything quickly wastes resources and may still leave real risks poorly addressed. A certification body audits the system but does not design it for the company.
ISO/IEC 27001 expects controls to be chosen through risk assessment and treatment, with the Statement of Applicability justifying what is included or excluded. Implementing everything quickly wastes resources and may still leave real risks poorly addressed. A certification body audits the system but does not design it for the company.
Question 48Risk Assessment
An internal audit report at an insurance company notes that user access reviews for the claims system have not been done for a year. From a risk identification view, what is the MOST important next step?
Correct answer: A. Find the risk scenarios that depend on this control and reassess exposure.
A control gap is a vulnerability that can raise the exposure of every risk that depends on that control, so the practitioner should update those risks. Performing the reviews personally would take over a task that belongs to the control owner and would compromise the practitioner's independence.
A control gap is a vulnerability that can raise the exposure of every risk that depends on that control, so the practitioner should update those risks. Performing the reviews personally would take over a task that belongs to the control owner and would compromise the practitioner's independence.
Question 49Governance
A fast-growing fintech company has no risk committee. Business units report risks directly to the CEO in different formats, and risks that span several units are often missed. Which of the following would BEST address this issue?
Correct answer: B. Establishing a risk committee for enterprise-wide risk oversight
A risk committee brings leaders together to review risks consistently across the enterprise, including risks that cross unit boundaries. Having internal audit approve risks would compromise its independence, and separate tools would make reporting even less consistent.
A risk committee brings leaders together to review risks consistently across the enterprise, including risks that cross unit boundaries. Having internal audit approve risks would compromise its independence, and separate tools would make reporting even less consistent.
Question 50Governance
A payment processor learns that a new data localization law will take effect in 18 months in a country where it serves customers. The company currently stores that country's customer data in another region. What should the risk practitioner do FIRST?
Correct answer: D. Assess how the law changes the current risk profile
The practitioner first needs to understand the gap between current practices and the new requirement and how it changes the risk profile, so the risk owner can choose a response. Migrating the data may become the chosen response, but starting it before the impact and options are analyzed is premature.
The practitioner first needs to understand the gap between current practices and the new requirement and how it changes the risk profile, so the risk owner can choose a response. Migrating the data may become the chosen response, but starting it before the impact and options are analyzed is premature.
Question 51Risk Assessment
An online brokerage is updating its BIA for the trade order system. The IT team proposes nightly backups because they are the cheapest option to run. Which of the following should MOST influence the recovery point objective for this system?
Correct answer: D. The amount of transaction data the business can afford to lose
The RPO reflects how much data loss the business can tolerate, which for a brokerage is likely minutes rather than a full day. Rebuild time relates to the recovery time objective, and existing backup technology should be chosen to meet the RPO rather than define it.
The RPO reflects how much data loss the business can tolerate, which for a brokerage is likely minutes rather than a full day. Rebuild time relates to the recovery time objective, and existing backup technology should be chosen to meet the RPO rather than define it.
Question 52Risk Response & Reporting
A retail chain plans to sign a three-year contract with a new payment processing provider that will handle cardholder data. Contract terms are still being negotiated. What should the risk practitioner do FIRST?
Correct answer: A. Perform due diligence on the provider's controls
Due diligence before signing shows whether the provider can meet the organization's security and stability requirements, and the results can shape the contract. An audit after go-live comes too late to influence the decision or the terms.
Due diligence before signing shows whether the provider can meet the organization's security and stability requirements, and the results can shape the contract. An audit after go-live comes too late to influence the decision or the terms.
Question 53Risk Response & Reporting
An insurance company's control testing team can test only 40 of its 200 controls this year. Which approach is MOST appropriate?
Correct answer: C. Focus on key controls over the most significant risks
Key controls are those whose failure would leave a significant risk outside tolerance, so they deserve testing priority when resources are limited. Random or rotation-based selection may spend scarce effort on low-value controls. Choosing by ease of testing ignores risk entirely.
Key controls are those whose failure would leave a significant risk outside tolerance, so they deserve testing priority when resources are limited. Random or rotation-based selection may spend scarce effort on low-value controls. Choosing by ease of testing ignores risk entirely.
Question 54Risk Response & Reporting
A food manufacturer is designing a KRI for late deliveries from key ingredient suppliers. Management wants red, amber and green thresholds. What should MOST influence where the red threshold is set?
Correct answer: A. The level of delay the business is willing to tolerate
KRI thresholds should reflect the organization's risk appetite and tolerance, so a red status means exposure has moved beyond what the business accepts. Historical averages describe past performance, but they say nothing about the level of risk management is prepared to take.
KRI thresholds should reflect the organization's risk appetite and tolerance, so a red status means exposure has moved beyond what the business accepts. Historical averages describe past performance, but they say nothing about the level of risk management is prepared to take.
Question 55Technology & Security
A university is building a new student portal that will hold grades and financial aid data. The project plan schedules the first security review after coding is complete. Which is the BEST recommendation?
Correct answer: B. Define security and privacy requirements before design starts
Building security and privacy requirements in from the start is far cheaper and more effective than fixing design flaws found after coding. A penetration test is useful but finds problems late, when changes are costly.
Building security and privacy requirements in from the start is far cheaper and more effective than fixing design flaws found after coding. A penetration test is useful but finds problems late, when changes are costly.
Question 56Technology & Security
During quarterly access recertification at an insurance firm, managers approved 99 percent of user entitlements within minutes. A later audit found several users with access they no longer needed. What is the BEST way to improve the effectiveness of these reviews?
Correct answer: B. Give reviewers context by highlighting unused and high-risk entitlements
Managers approve everything when they cannot easily tell which access matters, so highlighting unused and high-risk entitlements makes the review meaningful. Moving the reviews to IT security is tempting, but security staff do not know each user's business need, which is why managers own the decision.
Managers approve everything when they cannot easily tell which access matters, so highlighting unused and high-risk entitlements makes the review meaningful. Moving the reviews to IT security is tempting, but security staff do not know each user's business need, which is why managers own the decision.
Question 57Governance
After a data breach at an insurance company, investigators found that employees often skipped security steps. Managers had rewarded staff based only on how quickly they processed claims. What is the MOST effective way to address the root cause?
Correct answer: C. Revise performance incentives to reward secure work, not just speed
The root cause is an incentive structure that encouraged risky behavior, so changing incentives addresses why employees skipped the steps. Technical controls may block some shortcuts, but employees will keep seeking workarounds while they are rewarded only for speed.
The root cause is an incentive structure that encouraged risky behavior, so changing incentives addresses why employees skipped the steps. Technical controls may block some shortcuts, but employees will keep seeking workarounds while they are rewarded only for speed.
Question 58Risk Assessment
Which of the following BEST describes a top-down approach to developing risk scenarios?
Correct answer: B. Starting with business objectives and finding events that could prevent them
A top-down approach begins with the organization's objectives and asks which events could threaten them. Tailoring a generic library is the bottom-up approach, which is useful but starts from a list of possible events rather than from business goals.
A top-down approach begins with the organization's objectives and asks which events could threaten them. Tailoring a generic library is the bottom-up approach, which is useful but starts from a list of possible events rather than from business goals.
Question 59Governance
At a software company, the sales team often signs client contracts with security commitments, such as 24-hour breach notification, without involving risk or security staff. Several commitments exceed current capabilities. What is the BEST way to address this issue?
Correct answer: D. Add a risk review of security terms to the contracting process
Adding a risk review to contracting addresses the root cause, so new obligations are assessed and accepted by the right owner before signing. Upgrading capabilities may be needed for some contracts, but it does not stop sales from making new commitments the company cannot meet.
Adding a risk review to contracting addresses the root cause, so new obligations are assessed and accepted by the right owner before signing. Upgrading capabilities may be needed for some contracts, but it does not stop sales from making new commitments the company cannot meet.
Question 60Risk Assessment
A retail chain adds a new risk to its register: customer payment data could be exposed through its e-commerce platform. The platform is run by IT but supports revenue targets set by the head of digital sales. Who is the MOST appropriate risk owner?
Correct answer: A. The head of digital sales
The risk owner should be the business leader who is accountable for the objective the risk affects and has authority to fund a response, here the head of digital sales. The CISO and the IT manager may own related controls, but they do not own the business outcome at stake.
The risk owner should be the business leader who is accountable for the objective the risk affects and has authority to fund a response, here the head of digital sales. The CISO and the IT manager may own related controls, but they do not own the business outcome at stake.
Question 61Risk Response & Reporting
A manufacturer is negotiating a contract with a cloud provider that will host its product design files. Which contract provision is MOST important for the manufacturer to be able to verify the provider's controls over the life of the contract?
Correct answer: C. A right to audit the provider's security controls
A right-to-audit clause gives the manufacturer a contractual way to confirm that controls keep working after signing. Service credits compensate for outages but give no visibility into the provider's controls.
A right-to-audit clause gives the manufacturer a contractual way to confirm that controls keep working after signing. Service credits compensate for outages but give no visibility into the provider's controls.
Question 62Risk Response & Reporting
A retailer replaced a manual three-way match with an automated match in its ERP system. Management wants to test the automated control once and then rely on it for the full year. What is MOST important for that reliance to be justified?
Correct answer: A. Change controls over the ERP configuration work effectively
An automated control keeps working the same way only if its configuration cannot be changed without authorization, so effective IT general controls such as change management support relying on a single test. Vendor release notes do not show how the control is configured in this environment. Training and backup procedures do not prevent unauthorized changes.
An automated control keeps working the same way only if its configuration cannot be changed without authorization, so effective IT general controls such as change management support relying on a single test. Vendor release notes do not show how the control is configured in this environment. Training and backup procedures do not prevent unauthorized changes.
Question 63Risk Response & Reporting
An insurance company's KRI for claims fraud has shown green for two years. During that time, two large fraud schemes were discovered by external auditors. What is the MOST likely problem with the KRI?
Correct answer: D. It is not sensitive to changes in the underlying risk.
A KRI that stays green while the risk materializes is not responding to changes in exposure, so it fails the sensitivity test. Approval or cost issues may exist, but they would not explain why the indicator missed real fraud events.
A KRI that stays green while the risk materializes is not responding to changes in exposure, so it fails the sensitivity test. Approval or cost issues may exist, but they would not explain why the indicator missed real fraud events.
Question 64Governance
A risk practitioner at a retail chain notices that store managers rarely report incidents, even minor ones. Interviews show that managers fear being blamed for problems in their stores. Which of the following should the risk practitioner recommend?
Correct answer: A. Promoting a no-blame reporting process backed by senior leaders
Fear of blame is a cultural barrier, and a no-blame approach visibly supported by leadership encourages open reporting. Monitoring tools may catch some events, but they leave the culture unchanged and can further reduce trust.
Fear of blame is a cultural barrier, and a no-blame approach visibly supported by leadership encourages open reporting. Monitoring tools may catch some events, but they leave the culture unchanged and can further reduce trust.
Question 65Technology & Security
User acceptance testing of a new claims system at an insurance company found two unresolved high-severity defects. The business sponsor wants to go live on the planned date. What should the risk practitioner do FIRST?
Correct answer: C. Make sure the sponsor understands the risk before deciding
The sponsor owns the go-live decision and must understand the residual risk of the open defects to accept it or delay. Recommending a delay may be reasonable later, but the risk practitioner advises and does not make the decision.
The sponsor owns the go-live decision and must understand the residual risk of the open defects to accept it or delay. Recommending a delay may be reasonable later, but the risk practitioner advises and does not make the decision.
Question 66Technology & Security
An internal audit at a hospital finds that nurses who transfer between departments keep access to patient records from their previous units. What is the MOST likely root cause?
Correct answer: D. The access management process does not trigger reviews when job roles change
Access that builds up after transfers points to a gap in the mover part of the joiner-mover-leaver process, where a role change should prompt removal of old access. Missing audit logging is tempting because it would help detect misuse, but it does not explain why the old access was never removed.
Access that builds up after transfers points to a gap in the mover part of the joiner-mover-leaver process, where a role change should prompt removal of old access. Missing audit logging is tempting because it would help detect misuse, but it does not explain why the old access was never removed.
Question 67Risk Assessment
A university is building risk scenarios for its student enrollment process. The IT department has drafted ten scenarios, all based on system failures. What should the risk practitioner do NEXT?
Correct answer: D. Review the drafts with enrollment process owners to check their relevance.
Business process owners understand how enrollment works and what matters most, so they should help shape and confirm the scenarios. Estimating losses now would be premature because the drafts reflect only the IT view and may be incomplete.
Business process owners understand how enrollment works and what matters most, so they should help shape and confirm the scenarios. Estimating losses now would be premature because the drafts reflect only the IT view and may be incomplete.
Question 68Governance
A manufacturing company is drafting its first enterprise risk management policy. Which of the following is MOST important to include?
Correct answer: B. Roles, responsibilities and accountability for managing risk
A risk management policy sets direction and defines who is responsible and accountable, which supports consistent risk decisions across the enterprise. Detailed control procedures belong in lower-level documents and would make the policy hard to maintain.
A risk management policy sets direction and defines who is responsible and accountable, which supports consistent risk decisions across the enterprise. Detailed control procedures belong in lower-level documents and would make the policy hard to maintain.
Question 69Risk Assessment
A software company acquired a smaller competitor three months ago and has started integrating its customer support systems. The enterprise risk register was last reviewed six months ago. What should the risk practitioner do FIRST?
Correct answer: C. Reassess the affected risks and update the register entries
A major business change such as an acquisition should trigger a reassessment so the register reflects current exposure, not a six-month-old view. Copying the acquired company's entries without review risks inconsistent scales and owners, and waiting for the annual cycle leaves decisions based on stale data.
A major business change such as an acquisition should trigger a reassessment so the register reflects current exposure, not a six-month-old view. Copying the acquired company's entries without review risks inconsistent scales and owners, and waiting for the annual cycle leaves decisions based on stale data.
Question 70Risk Response & Reporting
While reviewing a payroll provider's SOC 2 Type II report, a risk practitioner notes a section listing complementary user entity controls. What should the risk practitioner do NEXT?
Correct answer: B. Verify that the organization has those controls in place
Complementary user entity controls are controls the customer must operate for the provider's controls to be effective. A clean opinion does not cover them, so the organization must confirm it has implemented them itself.
Complementary user entity controls are controls the customer must operate for the provider's controls to be effective. A clean opinion does not cover them, so the organization must confirm it has implemented them itself.
Question 71Risk Response & Reporting
At an online marketplace, a risk practitioner estimates that a proposed fraud detection tool will cost three times more per year than the annual loss it is expected to prevent. What is the BEST next step?
Correct answer: C. Give the risk owner other response options to decide on
When a control costs more than the risk reduction it delivers, the risk practitioner should outline other options, such as a cheaper control, transfer or acceptance, and let the risk owner decide. Recording the risk as accepted is a decision that belongs to the risk owner, not the practitioner. Buying the tool anyway ignores the cost-benefit analysis.
When a control costs more than the risk reduction it delivers, the risk practitioner should outline other options, such as a cheaper control, transfer or acceptance, and let the risk owner decide. Recording the risk as accepted is a decision that belongs to the risk owner, not the practitioner. Buying the tool anyway ignores the cost-benefit analysis.
Question 72Risk Response & Reporting
Which of the following BEST describes a key control indicator?
Correct answer: B. A metric that shows how well a specific control is operating
A key control indicator measures the effectiveness of a control, such as the share of access reviews completed on time. Signaling rising risk exposure describes a key risk indicator, which focuses on the risk rather than the control.
A key control indicator measures the effectiveness of a control, such as the share of access reviews completed on time. Signaling rising risk exposure describes a key risk indicator, which focuses on the risk rather than the control.
Question 73Governance
An employee at a pharmaceutical company tells the risk practitioner that a senior manager is pressuring staff to understate a compliance risk in the quarterly risk report. What should the risk practitioner do FIRST?
Correct answer: C. Escalate it through the established ethics reporting channel
Allegations of pressure to misreport risk are ethics matters that should go through the formal channel, which protects the reporter and ensures an objective review. Changing the rating or confronting the manager acts on an unverified claim and bypasses the proper process.
Allegations of pressure to misreport risk are ethics matters that should go through the formal channel, which protects the reporter and ensures an objective review. Changing the rating or confronting the manager acts on an unverified claim and bypasses the proper process.
Question 74Technology & Security
A property management company keeps every email and tenant record indefinitely because storage is cheap. No retention schedule exists. Which is the GREATEST risk?
Correct answer: A. Excess data increases legal and privacy exposure
Data kept beyond its legal or business need can breach privacy laws and increases what is exposed in a breach or legal discovery. Rising storage cost is real but has a far smaller impact than regulatory and legal consequences.
Data kept beyond its legal or business need can breach privacy laws and increases what is exposed in a breach or legal discovery. Rising storage cost is real but has a far smaller impact than regulatory and legal consequences.
Question 75Governance
A business unit at a consumer electronics company asks to be exempted from a requirement in the risk management policy because it slows product launches. What should the risk practitioner do FIRST?
Correct answer: D. Assess the risk and follow the formal exception process
Policy exceptions should be risk assessed and approved through a defined process by someone with the right authority, so deviations stay within appetite. Rejecting the request outright ignores a real business need and may push the unit to bypass the policy.
Policy exceptions should be risk assessed and approved through a defined process by someone with the right authority, so deviations stay within appetite. Rejecting the request outright ignores a real business need and may push the unit to bypass the policy.
Question 76Risk Assessment
A mid-sized retailer obtains a library of 60 generic IT risk scenarios from an industry association. What is the MOST important consideration when using this library?
Correct answer: A. Tailoring the scenarios to the retailer's business context and objectives
Generic scenarios are a starting point and only become useful once they are adapted to the organization's processes, assets and objectives. Adding all 60 without tailoring would fill the register with irrelevant items and could still miss risks unique to the retailer.
Generic scenarios are a starting point and only become useful once they are adapted to the organization's processes, assets and objectives. Adding all 60 without tailoring would fill the register with irrelevant items and could still miss risks unique to the retailer.
Question 77Technology & Security
A retail bank reports that 100 percent of employees completed annual security awareness training. The board asks whether the program is actually reducing risk. Which metric would BEST answer this question?
Correct answer: C. Change over time in incidents caused by employee error
A trend in incidents caused by employee error shows whether behavior has changed, which is what actually reduces risk. Quiz scores are tempting, but they measure what people remember right after training, not how they act on the job.
A trend in incidents caused by employee error shows whether behavior has changed, which is what actually reduces risk. Quiz scores are tempting, but they measure what people remember right after training, not how they act on the job.
Question 78Governance
Which of the following BEST describes the relationship between policies and standards?
Correct answer: D. Policies state management intent, and standards set mandatory rules to meet it
Policies are high-level statements of management intent, and standards define mandatory requirements that put those policies into practice. Optional recommendations are guidelines, not standards.
Policies are high-level statements of management intent, and standards define mandatory requirements that put those policies into practice. Optional recommendations are guidelines, not standards.
Question 79Risk Assessment
A university values its research data repository at $800,000. A storage failure is expected to destroy 25% of the asset's value, and such a failure is estimated to occur once every five years. What is the annualized loss expectancy (ALE)?
Correct answer: D. $40,000
The single loss expectancy is $800,000 x 0.25 = $200,000, and one event every five years gives an ARO of 0.2. ALE = $200,000 x 0.2 = $40,000. The $200,000 figure is the SLE alone, which ignores how often the event occurs.
The single loss expectancy is $800,000 x 0.25 = $200,000, and one event every five years gives an ARO of 0.2. ALE = $200,000 x 0.2 = $40,000. The $200,000 figure is the SLE alone, which ignores how often the event occurs.
Question 80Risk Response & Reporting
A software company learns that its customer support vendor moved part of its ticket handling to a subcontractor in another country without telling anyone. The subcontractor can view customer records. What is the BEST way to address this risk in vendor contracts going forward?
Correct answer: B. Require approval before vendors use subcontractors
A clause requiring approval of subcontractors gives the company visibility of fourth parties and a chance to assess them before data is shared. A blanket geographic ban is overly restrictive and still does not reveal who the subcontractors are.
A clause requiring approval of subcontractors gives the company visibility of fourth parties and a chance to assess them before data is shared. A blanket geographic ban is overly restrictive and still does not reveal who the subcontractors are.
Question 81Risk Response & Reporting
After a regulatory finding, a logistics firm added five approval steps to its shipment release process. Shipments are now delayed, and the latest assessment shows the related risk is far below the firm's appetite. What should the risk practitioner recommend?
Correct answer: B. Rationalize the steps that add little risk reduction
When residual risk is well below appetite and controls are hurting operations, the firm is likely over-controlled, so redundant steps should be streamlined while still meeting the regulatory requirement. Keeping every step ignores the cost to the business. Hiring more approvers adds cost without fixing the excess control.
When residual risk is well below appetite and controls are hurting operations, the firm is likely over-controlled, so redundant steps should be streamlined while still meeting the regulatory requirement. Keeping every step ignores the cost to the business. Hiring more approvers adds cost without fixing the excess control.
Question 82Risk Response & Reporting
A regional bank wants to detect unauthorized changes to its payment system settings as soon as they occur. Today, changes are reviewed in a quarterly sample by the operations team. Which monitoring approach is BEST?
Correct answer: D. Automated alerts on changes from the approved baseline
Automated continuous monitoring detects deviations close to real time, which matches the goal of catching changes as they occur. A larger quarterly sample improves coverage but still finds problems weeks or months after the fact.
Automated continuous monitoring detects deviations close to real time, which matches the goal of catching changes as they occur. A larger quarterly sample improves coverage but still finds problems weeks or months after the fact.
Question 83Governance
At a growing insurance company, the risk management function reports to the CIO. The function often reviews IT projects that the CIO sponsors. What is the GREATEST concern?
Correct answer: C. The risk function's objectivity on IT matters may be impaired
When the risk function reports to the executive whose projects it evaluates, it may hesitate to raise concerns, which weakens objective risk reporting. A technology-heavy focus is also a concern, but it is less serious than losing objectivity on the risks the function reviews.
When the risk function reports to the executive whose projects it evaluates, it may hesitate to raise concerns, which weakens objective risk reporting. A technology-heavy focus is also a concern, but it is less serious than losing objectivity on the risks the function reviews.
Question 84Risk Assessment
A risk practitioner at a water utility drafts this scenario: 'Systems could fail and cause service problems.' What is the GREATEST weakness of this scenario?
Correct answer: B. It does not name the actor, the specific event, the asset or the timing.
A well-formed scenario describes who or what causes the event, what happens, which asset is affected and when or for how long. A financial estimate comes later in risk analysis, and it cannot be made reliably until the scenario itself is specific.
A well-formed scenario describes who or what causes the event, what happens, which asset is affected and when or for how long. A financial estimate comes later in risk analysis, and it cannot be made reliably until the scenario itself is specific.
Question 85Technology & Security
A consulting firm is returning 300 leased laptops to the leasing company at the end of the contract. Which is the MOST important control?
Correct answer: C. Verify every drive is securely wiped and documented
Leased devices leave the firm's control, so verified and documented sanitization is what prevents client data from being exposed. Matching the inventory matters for the lease but does nothing to protect the data on the drives.
Leased devices leave the firm's control, so verified and documented sanitization is what prevents client data from being exposed. Matching the inventory matters for the lease but does nothing to protect the data on the drives.
Question 86Technology & Security
A manufacturing company gives all staff the same annual awareness course. Recent incidents involved administrators misusing powerful accounts and finance staff falling for payment fraud emails. What is the BEST recommendation?
Correct answer: A. Add targeted training that addresses the risks of each job role
The incidents come from risks tied to specific roles, so role-based training targets the behaviors that matter most for each group. A longer general course is tempting, but it still does not address the specific duties of administrators or finance staff.
The incidents come from risks tied to specific roles, so role-based training targets the behaviors that matter most for each group. A longer general course is tempting, but it still does not address the specific duties of administrators or finance staff.
Question 87Governance
A department at a university requests an exception to the password standard. A legacy research system it depends on cannot support complex passwords. What should the risk practitioner do FIRST?
Correct answer: B. Assess the risk and identify compensating controls
An exception should be granted only after its risk is understood and compensating controls are considered, so the risk owner can make an informed decision. Approving the exception right away skips this analysis, and the practitioner does not hold approval authority.
An exception should be granted only after its risk is understood and compensating controls are considered, so the risk owner can make an informed decision. Approving the exception right away skips this analysis, and the practitioner does not hold approval authority.
Question 88Risk Assessment
The CFO of a payment processor will approve a $2 million fraud detection upgrade only if the risk team shows the expected reduction in annual losses. The company has five years of reliable fraud loss data. Which approach is BEST for this analysis?
Correct answer: A. Quantitative analysis using historical loss data
The CFO needs results in monetary terms to compare against the investment, and reliable loss history makes quantitative analysis feasible. Qualitative scales would rank the risk but could not show a dollar reduction in expected losses.
The CFO needs results in monetary terms to compare against the investment, and reliable loss history makes quantitative analysis feasible. Qualitative scales would rank the risk but could not show a dollar reduction in expected losses.
Question 89Risk Response & Reporting
A media company relies on a single software-as-a-service platform for all subscriber billing. The contract renews automatically and contains no termination assistance or data return terms. Which of the following is the GREATEST concern?
Correct answer: C. Billing data may not be recoverable if the contract ends
Without exit terms, the company has no assurance it can retrieve its billing data and move to another provider, which threatens a critical process. Price increases can be negotiated or budgeted, while lost access to data cannot be easily fixed.
Without exit terms, the company has no assurance it can retrieve its billing data and move to another provider, which threatens a critical process. Price increases can be negotiated or budgeted, while lost access to data cannot be easily fixed.
Question 90Risk Response & Reporting
A distribution company is designing user roles for a new procurement system. Which role design would BEST reduce the risk of fraudulent purchases?
Correct answer: D. Split vendor setup, order approval and payment among roles
Segregating incompatible duties means no single person can create a fake vendor, approve a purchase and release the payment. Logging every action is a detective measure that does not stop fraud from happening. Self-approval and shared roles remove the separation that the control depends on.
Segregating incompatible duties means no single person can create a fake vendor, approve a purchase and release the payment. Logging every action is a detective measure that does not stop fraud from happening. Self-approval and shared roles remove the separation that the control depends on.
Question 91Risk Response & Reporting
A retail chain reports control effectiveness to its board using only the results of control self-assessments completed by store managers. No other review of these results takes place. What is the GREATEST concern?
Correct answer: D. The results have not been independently validated.
Self-assessments build ownership and awareness, but managers rating their own controls may be biased, so results need independent validation before the board relies on them. Lack of understanding is possible, but independent review is what would detect it and any other weakness.
Self-assessments build ownership and awareness, but managers rating their own controls may be biased, so results need independent validation before the board relies on them. Lack of understanding is possible, but independent review is what would detect it and any other weakness.
Question 92Governance
A conglomerate has five business units that each assess IT risk separately. Each unit's ransomware risk is within its own tolerance, but all units depend on the same backup platform. What is the MOST important action for the risk practitioner?
Correct answer: A. Aggregate the risk to see the combined exposure
Risks that are acceptable individually can exceed enterprise appetite when they share a common dependency, so an aggregated view is needed. Recommending separate backup platforms is a response that is premature before the combined exposure is understood.
Risks that are acceptable individually can exceed enterprise appetite when they share a common dependency, so an aggregated view is needed. Recommending separate backup platforms is a response that is premature before the combined exposure is understood.
Question 93Risk Assessment
After a series of workshops, a telecom company's risk practitioner rates a network outage scenario as low impact. The head of customer operations disagrees. She says a single outage would breach service level agreements with major clients. What should the risk practitioner do FIRST?
Correct answer: B. Review the contracts and outage data to validate the rating with her.
Scenario validation should rely on evidence, and the contracts and outage history will show whether the impact rating is realistic. Raising the rating without evidence simply swaps one opinion for another and may distort priorities.
Scenario validation should rely on evidence, and the contracts and outage history will show whether the impact rating is realistic. Raising the rating without evidence simply swaps one opinion for another and may distort priorities.
Question 94Governance
An energy company's information security policy was last updated four years ago. Since then, the company has moved most of its workloads to cloud services. Which of the following is the GREATEST concern?
Correct answer: D. The policy may no longer reflect current risks and operations
Policies must be reviewed regularly and after major changes so they keep addressing the organization's actual risks. A missing acknowledgment is a compliance issue, but an outdated policy fails to direct how cloud risks should be managed.
Policies must be reviewed regularly and after major changes so they keep addressing the organization's actual risks. A missing acknowledgment is a compliance issue, but an outdated policy fails to direct how cloud risks should be managed.
Question 95Technology & Security
A software company moved to two-week Agile sprints, but security reviews still happen only once a year before a major release. Several security flaws have reached customers. Which is the BEST way to address this risk?
Correct answer: C. Add security criteria to each sprint's definition of done
Building security criteria into the definition of done makes security part of every sprint, matching the Agile pace. Quarterly reviews are more frequent but still lag far behind releases every two weeks.
Building security criteria into the definition of done makes security part of every sprint, matching the Agile pace. Quarterly reviews are more frequent but still lag far behind releases every two weeks.
Question 96Technology & Security
A fitness app startup plans to collect each user's full date of birth, home address and employer at sign-up. The service only needs to confirm that users are over 18. What is the BEST recommendation?
Correct answer: A. Collect only the data needed to confirm age eligibility
Data minimization means collecting only what the stated purpose requires, which removes the risk rather than managing it. Obtaining consent is tempting, but consent does not make collecting unnecessary data appropriate, and the extra data still creates exposure.
Data minimization means collecting only what the stated purpose requires, which removes the risk rather than managing it. Obtaining consent is tempting, but consent does not make collecting unnecessary data appropriate, and the extra data still creates exposure.
Question 97Risk Assessment
Which of the following BEST describes the value of bow-tie analysis in risk assessment?
Correct answer: C. It links causes and consequences of an event to preventive and recovery controls
A bow-tie diagram places a risk event in the center, with causes and preventive controls on one side and consequences and mitigating controls on the other. Repeated simulation describes Monte Carlo analysis, which quantifies outcomes but does not map controls to causes and consequences.
A bow-tie diagram places a risk event in the center, with causes and preventive controls on one side and consequences and mitigating controls on the other. Repeated simulation describes Monte Carlo analysis, which quantifies outcomes but does not map controls to causes and consequences.
Question 98Risk Response & Reporting
A software company wants a key control indicator for its change approval control. Which of the following would BEST serve this purpose?
Correct answer: A. Percentage of production changes without a matching approval
A key control indicator shows how well a specific control is operating, and changes reaching production without approval directly measure failures of the approval control. Training completion shows effort, not whether the control actually works.
A key control indicator shows how well a specific control is operating, and changes reaching production without approval directly measure failures of the approval control. Training completion shows effort, not whether the control actually works.
Question 99Risk Response & Reporting
A mortgage lender plans to deploy a data loss prevention tool that will block outbound email containing loan account numbers. The business relies heavily on email with brokers and title companies. What should be done BEFORE full deployment?
Correct answer: B. Run the tool in a pilot with user acceptance testing
A pilot with user acceptance testing confirms the control blocks the right traffic without disrupting legitimate business communication. Deploying to everyone first and tuning later could halt critical processes. Security approval alone leaves out the business users who must accept the change.
A pilot with user acceptance testing confirms the control blocks the right traffic without disrupting legitimate business communication. Deploying to everyone first and tuning later could halt critical processes. Security approval alone leaves out the business users who must accept the change.
Question 100Governance
A risk practitioner at an online travel agency is preparing the annual update of the enterprise IT risk profile. Which of the following would provide the MOST useful input?
Correct answer: A. Changes in business strategy and the threat landscape
The risk profile is the current overall picture of risk the enterprise faces, so it must reflect changes in business objectives and threats. Vulnerability scan results are useful detail, but they are too narrow and technical to drive an enterprise-level profile.
The risk profile is the current overall picture of risk the enterprise faces, so it must reflect changes in business objectives and threats. Vulnerability scan results are useful detail, but they are too narrow and technical to drive an enterprise-level profile.
Question 101Risk Response & Reporting
A KRI for failed customer logins at an online retailer has stayed below its amber threshold but has risen for six months in a row. What should the risk practitioner do FIRST?
Correct answer: C. Analyze the cause of the trend and inform the risk owner.
A steady upward trend can signal growing exposure even before a threshold is crossed, so the cause should be understood and shared with the risk owner. Adding controls right away is premature because the cause is not yet known and the response decision belongs to the risk owner.
A steady upward trend can signal growing exposure even before a threshold is crossed, so the cause should be understood and shared with the risk owner. Adding controls right away is premature because the cause is not yet known and the response decision belongs to the risk owner.
Question 102Governance
A risk practitioner drafted a new enterprise risk management policy for a telecom company. Which of the following should approve the policy so that it carries the right authority?
Correct answer: B. Senior management, with board oversight
Policies express management intent, so senior management, under board oversight, should approve them to give them authority across the organization. The chief audit executive must stay independent and should not approve policies that audit will later assess.
Policies express management intent, so senior management, under board oversight, should approve them to give them authority across the organization. The chief audit executive must stay independent and should not approve policies that audit will later assess.
Question 103Risk Assessment
Which of the following provides the BEST evidence that an approved set of risk scenarios still reflects the organization's real exposure?
Correct answer: D. Recent incident and near-miss records compared with the scenarios
Actual incidents and near misses show what is really happening, so comparing them with the scenarios reveals gaps and outdated assumptions. A staff opinion survey is useful input, but it is subjective and narrower than objective event data.
Actual incidents and near misses show what is really happening, so comparing them with the scenarios reveals gaps and outdated assumptions. A staff opinion survey is useful input, but it is subjective and narrower than objective event data.
Question 104Technology & Security
A fintech startup uses a CI/CD pipeline that lets any developer push code to production. The team is small, so separate approvers are not practical. Which is the BEST control?
Correct answer: A. Make peer review and automated tests required pipeline gates
Mandatory peer review and automated testing in the pipeline give independent checks without slowing a small team. Removing all deployment rights ignores the business constraint, and a yearly log review detects problems far too late.
Mandatory peer review and automated testing in the pipeline give independent checks without slowing a small team. Removing all deployment rights ignores the business constraint, and a yearly log review detects problems far too late.
Question 105Technology & Security
A city government is designing a smart parking system that will capture license plate images. The project team plans to perform a privacy impact assessment after the system goes live. What is the GREATEST concern with this approach?
Correct answer: B. Privacy risks may be built into the design and be costly to fix
A privacy impact assessment is most valuable early, when its findings can still shape design choices at low cost. Budget or access issues after launch are real but minor compared with discovering that the core design collects or exposes personal data in ways that are hard to change.
A privacy impact assessment is most valuable early, when its findings can still shape design choices at low cost. Budget or access issues after launch are real but minor compared with discovering that the core design collects or exposes personal data in ways that are hard to change.
Question 106Governance
Which of the following BEST describes ISO 31000?
Correct answer: A. Guidelines for managing risk that any organization can adapt
ISO 31000 provides principles and guidelines for managing any type of risk and is meant to be adapted to each organization's context. It is not a certifiable standard, unlike ISO/IEC 27001, which covers an information security management system.
ISO 31000 provides principles and guidelines for managing any type of risk and is meant to be adapted to each organization's context. It is not a certifiable standard, unlike ISO/IEC 27001, which covers an information security management system.
Question 107Risk Assessment
A bank's risk committee uses a 5x5 heat map to prioritize technology risks. Two risks appear in the same high-high cell, but one could cost $2 million and the other $40 million. Which of the following is the GREATEST limitation this reveals?
Correct answer: D. Broad rating bands can group risks with very different exposures
Heat maps use ordinal bands, so risks with very different financial exposure can fall in the same cell and look equal. Not showing the reporting department is a minor presentation issue and does not distort how risks are prioritized.
Heat maps use ordinal bands, so risks with very different financial exposure can fall in the same cell and look equal. Not showing the reporting department is a minor presentation issue and does not distort how risks are prioritized.
Question 108Risk Response & Reporting
A bank is launching control self-assessments for branch managers. In a pilot, managers rated controls using their own judgment, and similar controls received very different ratings. What should the risk practitioner do FIRST?
Correct answer: A. Define rating criteria and the evidence needed for each rating
Clear rating criteria and evidence requirements make self-assessment results consistent and comparable across branches. Replacing them with full audits would be costly and gives up the ownership benefits that self-assessment is meant to build.
Clear rating criteria and evidence requirements make self-assessment results consistent and comparable across branches. Replacing them with full audits would be costly and gives up the ownership benefits that self-assessment is meant to build.
Question 109Risk Response & Reporting
A software company implemented multifactor authentication for remote access to reduce the risk of account takeover. The project team has formally closed the project. What is MOST important for the risk practitioner to do next?
Correct answer: C. Confirm that residual risk is now within risk appetite
A post-implementation review should confirm that the new control actually reduced the risk to an acceptable level, which is the reason it was implemented. Lessons learned and cost data are useful but do not show whether the risk was addressed. User satisfaction affects adoption, but it does not measure risk reduction.
A post-implementation review should confirm that the new control actually reduced the risk to an acceptable level, which is the reason it was implemented. Lessons learned and cost data are useful but do not show whether the risk was addressed. User satisfaction affects adoption, but it does not measure risk reduction.
Question 110Risk Response & Reporting
Executives at a hospital group receive a quarterly risk heat map. They say the same risks appear in red every quarter, and they cannot tell whether things are getting better or worse. What is the BEST improvement to the report?
Correct answer: A. Show each risk's movement since the previous period.
A heat map shows a point-in-time position, so adding direction-of-travel indicators lets executives see whether exposure is improving or worsening. More colors add granularity but still show only a snapshot with no sense of change.
A heat map shows a point-in-time position, so adding direction-of-travel indicators lets executives see whether exposure is improving or worsening. More colors add granularity but still show only a snapshot with no sense of change.
Question 111Governance
A food distributor is developing its first business continuity plan. The project lead wants to start by writing recovery procedures for each department. What should the risk practitioner recommend be done FIRST?
Correct answer: D. Perform a business impact analysis to find critical processes
A business impact analysis identifies critical processes, the impact of disruption and recovery priorities, which then shape the plan. Writing procedures first may spend effort on processes that matter little while missing the most critical ones.
A business impact analysis identifies critical processes, the impact of disruption and recovery priorities, which then shape the plan. Writing procedures first may spend effort on processes that matter little while missing the most critical ones.
Question 112Risk Assessment
A bank's marketing team has signed a contract with a vendor to build a mobile app that collects customer location data. Risk management was not involved, and the app goes live in two months. What should the risk practitioner do FIRST?
Correct answer: B. Meet with the project sponsor to identify the risks the app introduces.
The priority is to understand the new risk while there is still time to act, and the sponsor is accountable for the project. Asking the vendor to stop work is a decision for the business and is premature before the risks are known.
The priority is to understand the new risk while there is still time to act, and the sponsor is accountable for the project. Asking the vendor to stop work is a decision for the business and is premature before the risks are known.
Question 113Governance
The board of a fintech start-up approved a risk appetite statement saying the company has a moderate appetite for technology risk. Business managers say they cannot use the statement to make decisions. What should the risk practitioner recommend?
Correct answer: C. Express the appetite through measurable tolerances
Appetite becomes usable when it is expressed through measurable limits, such as tolerances and key risk indicators, that managers can check decisions against. Changing the level from moderate to low would not help, because the statement would still be too vague to apply.
Appetite becomes usable when it is expressed through measurable limits, such as tolerances and key risk indicators, that managers can check decisions against. Changing the level from moderate to low would not help, because the statement would still be too vague to apply.
Question 114Technology & Security
A credit card processor's annual disaster recovery test restored all servers at the backup site within the four-hour RTO. Application owners did not take part, and no transactions were processed at the backup site. Management reports the test as a full success. What is the GREATEST concern?
Correct answer: B. Business recovery of the services has not been demonstrated
Restoring servers shows only that infrastructure came back, and without application owners confirming that transactions work, the business cannot rely on meeting its recovery objective. A report written by the infrastructure team is a minor objectivity issue compared with untested business functionality.
Restoring servers shows only that infrastructure came back, and without application owners confirming that transactions work, the business cannot rely on meeting its recovery objective. A report written by the infrastructure team is a minor objectivity issue compared with untested business functionality.
Question 115Technology & Security
A company based in the European Union wants to move its customer database to a lower-cost cloud provider that stores data in another country. What should the risk practitioner do FIRST?
Correct answer: D. Identify the legal requirements for transferring data abroad
Cross-border transfers of personal data can be restricted by law, so the practitioner must first understand which requirements apply before the move is approved. Encryption is a useful control, but choosing controls is premature before knowing the legal obligations and whether the transfer is allowed at all.
Cross-border transfers of personal data can be restricted by law, so the practitioner must first understand which requirements apply before the move is approved. Encryption is a useful control, but choosing controls is premature before knowing the legal obligations and whether the transfer is allowed at all.
Question 116Governance
An online travel agency's business impact analysis set a four-hour recovery time objective for its booking platform. The current disaster recovery plan can restore the platform in about 24 hours. What should the risk practitioner do FIRST?
Correct answer: B. Report the gap and its business impact to the risk owner
The risk owner needs to understand the gap and its business impact to decide how to respond, such as investing in faster recovery or accepting the risk. Buying a hot site is a response decision that should not be made before the owner weighs the options.
The risk owner needs to understand the gap and its business impact to decide how to respond, such as investing in faster recovery or accepting the risk. Buying a hot site is a response decision that should not be made before the owner weighs the options.
Question 117Risk Assessment
A health insurer estimates the inherent annualized loss from claims fraud at $300,000. A new analytics control is expected to reduce the frequency of fraud events by 80% with no change in loss per event. The board's risk appetite for this risk is $75,000 per year. Which statement is correct?
Correct answer: C. Residual risk is $60,000, which is within appetite
Reducing frequency by 80% leaves 20% of the inherent exposure, so residual risk is $300,000 x 0.20 = $60,000. That is below the $75,000 appetite. The $240,000 figure is the loss avoided by the control, not the risk that remains.
Reducing frequency by 80% leaves 20% of the inherent exposure, so residual risk is $300,000 x 0.20 = $60,000. That is below the $75,000 appetite. The $240,000 figure is the loss avoided by the control, not the risk that remains.
Question 118Risk Response & Reporting
A hotel group buys a cyber insurance policy and plans to report its ransomware risk as transferred. The policy excludes attacks attributed to state-sponsored actors and caps payouts at $2 million. What should the risk practitioner do FIRST?
Correct answer: A. Compare exclusions and limits with the loss scenarios
Exclusions and payout limits determine how much loss the insurer will actually cover, so comparing them with realistic scenarios shows the exposure the group still carries. Reporting the risk as fully transferred overstates the protection the policy provides.
Exclusions and payout limits determine how much loss the insurer will actually cover, so comparing them with realistic scenarios shows the exposure the group still carries. Reporting the risk as fully transferred overstates the protection the policy provides.
Question 119Risk Response & Reporting
During a walkthrough at a utility company, a tester confirms that the procedure for approving journal entries is well designed and that one entry was approved correctly. What should the tester do NEXT to conclude that the control is effective?
Correct answer: D. Test a sample of entries from across the review period
A walkthrough supports design effectiveness, but operating effectiveness requires evidence that the control worked consistently over the period, usually through a sample. A single instance cannot show the control operated all year. A signed statement from the owner is self-reported and weak evidence.
A walkthrough supports design effectiveness, but operating effectiveness requires evidence that the control worked consistently over the period, usually through a sample. A single instance cannot show the control operated all year. A signed statement from the owner is self-reported and weak evidence.
Question 120Risk Response & Reporting
Board members at a telecom company say the quarterly risk report is 80 pages of system-level metrics and control test results. They struggle to find what they need. Which of the following is the BEST way to improve the report?
Correct answer: A. Summarize the top risks and the decisions they require.
Board reporting should be brief and strategic, focusing on the most significant risks, their direction and the decisions the board must make. Training the board on technical metrics keeps the focus on detail that belongs with management and operations.
Board reporting should be brief and strategic, focusing on the most significant risks, their direction and the decisions the board must make. Training the board on technical metrics keeps the focus on detail that belongs with management and operations.
Question 121Risk Assessment
A healthcare company plans to acquire a smaller clinic network that runs different IT systems and serves patients in two other states. What should the risk practitioner do FIRST?
Correct answer: C. Identify the risks that the clinic network's systems and obligations bring.
An acquisition brings new assets, processes, regulations and threats, so the first step is to identify the risk the clinic network adds. Applying the parent's existing ratings assumes the two environments are alike, which the different systems and state rules make unlikely.
An acquisition brings new assets, processes, regulations and threats, so the first step is to identify the risk the clinic network adds. Applying the parent's existing ratings assumes the two environments are alike, which the different systems and state rules make unlikely.
Question 122Governance
A university board wants a framework focused on the governance and management of enterprise information and technology, aligned with institutional goals. Which framework would BEST meet this need?
Correct answer: D. COBIT
COBIT is a framework for the governance and management of enterprise information and technology that links IT objectives to enterprise goals. ISO/IEC 27001 focuses on an information security management system, which is narrower than enterprise IT governance.
COBIT is a framework for the governance and management of enterprise information and technology that links IT objectives to enterprise goals. ISO/IEC 27001 focuses on an information security management system, which is narrower than enterprise IT governance.
Question 123Governance
A municipal water utility updated its business continuity plan after a major reorganization. The updated plan has not yet been tested. Which of the following is the GREATEST risk?
Correct answer: D. The plan may not work as intended during an actual disruption
Testing confirms that a plan will work when needed, and reorganizations often change roles, contacts and dependencies. An audit finding is a secondary consequence, while plan failure during a real event directly affects essential services.
Testing confirms that a plan will work when needed, and reorganizations often change roles, contacts and dependencies. An audit finding is a secondary consequence, while plan failure during a real event directly affects essential services.
Question 124Technology & Security
A utility company has just written its first disaster recovery plan. Management wants to check that the plan is complete and that staff understand their roles, without affecting operations. Which test is BEST to start with?
Correct answer: B. A tabletop walkthrough with the recovery team
A tabletop walkthrough is a low-cost, non-disruptive way to find gaps in a new plan and confirm roles before more demanding tests. A parallel test does not stop operations, but it is costly and premature until the plan itself has been validated.
A tabletop walkthrough is a low-cost, non-disruptive way to find gaps in a new plan and confirm roles before more demanding tests. A parallel test does not stop operations, but it is costly and premature until the plan itself has been validated.
Question 125Technology & Security
A pharmaceutical company bought a data loss prevention tool, but the security team cannot agree on which data the tool should protect. What should have been done FIRST?
Correct answer: C. Establish a data classification scheme and identify sensitive data
A data loss prevention tool can only protect data that the organization has identified and classified, so classification is the foundation for its rules. Deploying agents everywhere is tempting, but without knowing what is sensitive the tool will either miss important data or block normal work.
A data loss prevention tool can only protect data that the organization has identified and classified, so classification is the foundation for its rules. Deploying agents everywhere is tempting, but without knowing what is sensitive the tool will either miss important data or block normal work.
Question 126Risk Assessment
Which of the following is the BEST reason for a risk practitioner to assess inherent risk in addition to residual risk?
Correct answer: D. To show how heavily the organization depends on its controls
Comparing inherent and residual risk shows how much exposure the controls absorb, which highlights the controls whose failure would hurt most. Assessing inherent risk does not remove the need to test controls, because residual risk is only accurate if controls work as designed.
Comparing inherent and residual risk shows how much exposure the controls absorb, which highlights the controls whose failure would hurt most. Assessing inherent risk does not remove the need to test controls, because residual risk is only accurate if controls work as designed.
Question 127Risk Response & Reporting
After a new data loss prevention tool is deployed at an insurance firm, the residual risk of customer data leakage is still above the tolerance the risk owner set. What should the risk practitioner do NEXT?
Correct answer: C. Report the remaining gap and options to the risk owner
When residual risk remains above tolerance, the risk owner must decide on further action, so the practitioner should report the gap along with options such as more mitigation or transfer. Recording the risk as accepted without the owner's decision bypasses accountability.
When residual risk remains above tolerance, the risk owner must decide on further action, so the practitioner should report the gap along with options such as more mitigation or transfer. Recording the risk as accepted without the owner's decision bypasses accountability.
Question 128Risk Response & Reporting
A tester is evaluating a monthly bank reconciliation performed by a senior accountant at a property management firm. Which testing method provides the MOST reliable evidence that the control operates effectively?
Correct answer: B. Reperforming selected reconciliations and comparing results
Reperformance gives the tester direct, independent evidence that the reconciliation was done correctly. Interviews and procedure reviews show how the control should work, not that it did. Seeing that files exist does not prove differences were investigated and resolved.
Reperformance gives the tester direct, independent evidence that the reconciliation was done correctly. Interviews and procedure reviews show how the control should work, not that it did. Seeing that files exist does not prove differences were investigated and resolved.
Question 129Risk Response & Reporting
A KRI for unplanned downtime of a manufacturer's production systems has crossed its tolerance threshold. The risk practitioner has confirmed the data is accurate. What should the risk practitioner do NEXT?
Correct answer: C. Escalate to the risk owner using the agreed process.
A breach of tolerance means exposure has moved beyond what the business accepts, so it must be escalated promptly to the risk owner through the defined process. Waiting for the next scheduled report delays the decision, and choosing a compensating control belongs to the risk owner.
A breach of tolerance means exposure has moved beyond what the business accepts, so it must be escalated promptly to the risk owner through the defined process. Waiting for the next scheduled report delays the decision, and choosing a compensating control belongs to the risk owner.
Question 130Risk Assessment
A software firm is moving its customer support platform to a public cloud service. The firm's IT team assumes the cloud provider will handle all security. What should the risk practitioner do FIRST?
Correct answer: A. Clarify which security duties stay with the firm under the service model.
Under the shared responsibility model, the customer keeps some security duties, such as access management and data settings, so the team's assumption leaves risk unidentified. The provider's assurance report is helpful, but it covers only the provider's controls and will not reveal the gaps the firm owns.
Under the shared responsibility model, the customer keeps some security duties, such as access management and data settings, so the team's assumption leaves risk unidentified. The provider's assurance report is helpful, but it covers only the provider's controls and will not reveal the gaps the firm owns.
Question 131Governance
A hospital's ERM committee includes finance, legal and operations leaders, but no one represents IT. Recent IT outages disrupted patient services and did not appear on the enterprise risk report. What is the BEST way to improve the ERM program?
Correct answer: B. Add IT risk representation to the ERM committee
IT risk affects business objectives such as patient care, so it should be considered within the same ERM structure as other enterprise risk. A separate IT committee reporting to the CIO keeps IT risk in a silo and away from enterprise decisions.
IT risk affects business objectives such as patient care, so it should be considered within the same ERM structure as other enterprise risk. A separate IT committee reporting to the CIO keeps IT risk in a silo and away from enterprise decisions.
Question 132Governance
A risk practitioner at a media company is asked to assess risk to customer data. The company does not have a complete inventory of the systems that store this data. What should the risk practitioner do FIRST?
Correct answer: A. Identify and document the assets that hold customer data
Risk cannot be assessed for assets that are not known, so the practitioner should first work with the business to identify where customer data resides. Encryption and testing are control activities that would leave unknown systems unprotected.
Risk cannot be assessed for assets that are not known, so the practitioner should first work with the business to identify where customer data resides. Encryption and testing are control activities that would leave unknown systems unprotected.
Question 133Technology & Security
The HR department of a hotel group has chosen a SaaS provider to host employee records and wants to sign the contract this month. What should the risk practitioner do FIRST?
Correct answer: C. Assess the risk of the move against the risk appetite
Before contract terms or controls are set, the risk of placing employee data with the provider must be understood and compared with the enterprise's risk appetite. Negotiating audit rights is useful, but it comes after the risk is assessed and the business decides to proceed.
Before contract terms or controls are set, the risk of placing employee data with the provider must be understood and compared with the enterprise's risk appetite. Negotiating audit rights is useful, but it comes after the risk is assessed and the business decides to proceed.
Question 134Technology & Security
During a review of a payroll system, the risk practitioner learns that the database is encrypted, but the encryption key is stored in a configuration file on the same server. What is the GREATEST concern?
Correct answer: D. An attacker who compromises the server can also decrypt the data
Keeping the key next to the encrypted data means one compromise exposes both, which largely defeats the purpose of encryption. Algorithm strength is tempting to focus on, but even a strong algorithm offers little protection when the key is easy to obtain.
Keeping the key next to the encrypted data means one compromise exposes both, which largely defeats the purpose of encryption. Algorithm strength is tempting to focus on, but even a strong algorithm offers little protection when the key is easy to obtain.
Question 135Risk Assessment
A commodities trader sets daily hedge positions using a complex spreadsheet built by the trading desk. The spreadsheet has no version history and no input checks, and it has never been independently tested. Which of the following is the GREATEST concern?
Correct answer: D. Undetected formula errors could drive costly trading decisions
End-user computing tools that feed key decisions need change control and testing, because a single formula error can go unnoticed and cause large financial losses. A large or slow file is an inconvenience that does not threaten the accuracy of decisions.
End-user computing tools that feed key decisions need change control and testing, because a single formula error can go unnoticed and cause large financial losses. A large or slow file is an inconvenience that does not threaten the accuracy of decisions.
Question 136Risk Response & Reporting
Two controls are proposed to reduce fraud risk in an online marketplace, and both would bring the risk within appetite. One costs less to buy but needs more staff to operate. The other costs more to buy but is largely automated. Which is the BEST basis for choosing between them?
Correct answer: A. The total cost of ownership of each control
When both options meet the appetite, the better choice is the one with the lower cost over its full life, including staffing and maintenance. The purchase price alone ignores operating costs that may make the cheaper control more expensive.
When both options meet the appetite, the better choice is the one with the lower cost over its full life, including staffing and maintenance. The purchase price alone ignores operating costs that may make the cheaper control more expensive.
Question 137Risk Response & Reporting
A retailer has ended its contract with a digital marketing agency that had remote access to its customer database. Which of the following is MOST important to complete?
Correct answer: B. Revoke access and confirm the data was returned or destroyed
When a vendor relationship ends, leftover accounts and retained customer data create exposure that the retailer no longer controls. Notifying customers is not required here and does nothing to remove the agency's access.
When a vendor relationship ends, leftover accounts and retained customer data create exposure that the retailer no longer controls. Notifying customers is not required here and does nothing to remove the agency's access.
Question 138Risk Response & Reporting
A government has published a draft law that would limit how a fintech company can use customer data for marketing. The law may take effect in two years. What is the BEST action for the risk practitioner?
Correct answer: D. Assess the likely impact and report it as an emerging risk.
An emerging risk should be assessed and reported early so management can plan a response with enough lead time. Building controls for a draft that may still change is premature and may waste resources.
An emerging risk should be assessed and reported early so management can plan a response with enough lead time. Building controls for a draft that may still change is premature and may waste resources.
Question 139Risk Assessment
A retail chain plans to outsource payroll processing to a specialist provider. The finance director says payroll risk will no longer be the chain's concern once the contract is signed. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST response?
Correct answer: C. The chain stays accountable for payroll risk even when the work is outsourced.
An organization can outsource a process but not its accountability, so payroll risk must stay in the register with a business owner. Moving ownership to the provider is the tempting view, but the provider only performs the work while the chain still bears the consequences.
An organization can outsource a process but not its accountability, so payroll risk must stay in the register with a business owner. Moving ownership to the provider is the tempting view, but the provider only performs the work while the chain still bears the consequences.
Question 140Governance
Management at a credit union asks the internal audit team to design and implement a new IT risk assessment process. The audit team would then audit that process next year. What is the GREATEST concern?
Correct answer: B. Internal audit's independence would be impaired
If internal audit designs and implements a process and then audits it, it reviews its own work, which undermines the independent assurance the third line provides. A lack of technical knowledge can be fixed with training or outside experts, while impaired independence reduces the value of the audit itself.
If internal audit designs and implements a process and then audits it, it reviews its own work, which undermines the independent assurance the third line provides. A lack of technical knowledge can be fixed with training or outside experts, while impaired independence reduces the value of the audit itself.
Question 141Governance
A hospital's asset inventory lists many clinical applications without a named owner. Which of the following is the GREATEST concern?
Correct answer: C. No one is accountable for protecting these applications
Asset owners are accountable for decisions about protection, access and risk, so unowned assets may not be properly protected. Duplicate entries and licensing issues are administrative problems with far less impact on patient care and data.
Asset owners are accountable for decisions about protection, access and risk, so unowned assets may not be properly protected. Duplicate entries and licensing issues are administrative problems with far less impact on patient care and data.
Question 142Technology & Security
A credit union plans to use a machine learning model to approve small business loans. The model will be trained on 10 years of past loan decisions made by staff. Which is the GREATEST risk to address before deployment?
Correct answer: A. The model may repeat biases found in past decisions
Historical decisions can contain unfair patterns, and a model trained on them will repeat those biases, creating legal, regulatory and reputational risk. Staff resistance is a change management issue that is much easier to handle.
Historical decisions can contain unfair patterns, and a model trained on them will repeat those biases, creating legal, regulatory and reputational risk. Staff resistance is a change management issue that is much easier to handle.
Question 143Technology & Security
A commodities trading firm must ensure that traders cannot later deny submitting high-value orders through its internal platform. Which control BEST supports this requirement?
Correct answer: B. Digital signatures using keys issued to each individual trader
Digital signatures tied to individual keys provide nonrepudiation because only the key holder could have signed the order. Encryption in transit is tempting, but it protects confidentiality and does not prove who sent the order.
Digital signatures tied to individual keys provide nonrepudiation because only the key holder could have signed the order. Encryption in transit is tempting, but it protects confidentiality and does not prove who sent the order.
Question 144Risk Assessment
A shipping firm's experts can only estimate cyber loss as a range, such as $1 million to $8 million per event, along with a most likely value. Executives want to know the chance that annual losses will exceed $10 million. Which technique is MOST appropriate?
Correct answer: A. Monte Carlo simulation of the estimated ranges
Monte Carlo simulation samples repeatedly from input ranges to produce a distribution of outcomes, which answers how likely losses are to exceed a threshold. A heat map ranks risks on ordinal scales and cannot express the probability of exceeding a dollar amount.
Monte Carlo simulation samples repeatedly from input ranges to produce a distribution of outcomes, which answers how likely losses are to exceed a threshold. A heat map ranks risks on ordinal scales and cannot express the probability of exceeding a dollar amount.
Question 145Risk Response & Reporting
A pharmaceutical company has more than 600 active vendors and a small third-party risk team. Every vendor currently receives the same annual questionnaire. What is the BEST way to improve ongoing vendor monitoring?
Correct answer: C. Scale monitoring depth to each vendor's risk tier
Tiering vendors by criticality and access to data lets a small team focus deeper monitoring where the risk is highest. Contract value is a weak proxy, because a low-cost vendor may still have access to sensitive systems.
Tiering vendors by criticality and access to data lets a small team focus deeper monitoring where the risk is highest. Contract value is a weak proxy, because a low-cost vendor may still have access to sensitive systems.
Question 146Risk Response & Reporting
Which of the following BEST describes a directive control?
Correct answer: B. A control that states expected behavior, such as a policy
Directive controls tell people what they must or must not do, typically through policies, standards and procedures. A deterrent control discourages violations, for example through warning signs, but does not itself define required behavior. Blocking an action before it happens describes a preventive control.
Directive controls tell people what they must or must not do, typically through policies, standards and procedures. A deterrent control discourages violations, for example through warning signs, but does not itself define required behavior. Blocking an action before it happens describes a preventive control.
Question 147Risk Response & Reporting
A cloud payroll provider's monthly reports show it meeting its 99.9 percent availability target. However, HR staff often report that the service is unavailable during business hours. What should the risk practitioner do FIRST?
Correct answer: D. Review how the SLA defines and measures availability
Providers may exclude maintenance windows or partial outages from availability figures, so checking the SLA definitions against the company's own monitoring shows whether the reports reflect real service. Accepting the reports without question ignores clear evidence of a gap.
Providers may exclude maintenance windows or partial outages from availability figures, so checking the SLA definitions against the company's own monitoring shows whether the reports reflect real service. Accepting the reports without question ignores clear evidence of a gap.
Question 148Risk Assessment
A health research foundation plans to publish an anonymized patient dataset. Names and ID numbers are removed, but ZIP code, birth date and diagnosis are kept. During risk identification, what is the GREATEST concern?
Correct answer: A. Individuals could be re-identified by linking it with public data
Combinations of quasi-identifiers such as ZIP code, birth date and diagnosis can be matched with public records to identify individuals, which would breach privacy obligations. Limited research usefulness is a business concern, not a privacy exposure.
Combinations of quasi-identifiers such as ZIP code, birth date and diagnosis can be matched with public records to identify individuals, which would breach privacy obligations. Limited research usefulness is a business concern, not a privacy exposure.
Question 149Governance
A pharmaceutical company operates in 12 countries. Last year it was fined because staff missed a new privacy rule in one country. What is the BEST way to prevent this from happening again?
Correct answer: B. Establish a process to monitor and assess regulatory changes
A formal regulatory change process makes sure new requirements are identified, assessed for impact and assigned to owners in time. Applying the strictest rule everywhere may reduce some exposure, but it does not ensure that new or different requirements are detected.
A formal regulatory change process makes sure new requirements are identified, assessed for impact and assigned to owners in time. Applying the strictest rule everywhere may reduce some exposure, but it does not ensure that new or different requirements are detected.
Question 150Governance
A consulting firm wants to apply security controls to its data in a consistent and cost-effective way. Which of the following should be done FIRST?
Correct answer: D. Classify data by its sensitivity and business value
Classification tells the firm which data needs the most protection, so controls can match the value and sensitivity of each data type. Encrypting everything without classification may waste resources and still leave handling rules unclear.
Classification tells the firm which data needs the most protection, so controls can match the value and sensitivity of each data type. Encrypting everything without classification may waste resources and still leave handling rules unclear.
The real CRISC exam at a glance
150questions
4htime limit
MCQmultiple choice
75%+aim for here
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Original practice questions written by CertOcean in the style of the CRISC exam. They are not real exam questions. CRISC and ISACA are trademarks of their owners. Real exam format: 150 questions · 4 hours · passing score 450 on a 200-800 scale.