CompTIA SecurityX CAS-005 (formerly CASP+) · Updated 2026

Free CompTIA SecurityX (CAS-005) Practice Exam (2026)

Full-length SecurityX mock exams with the same number of questions and time as the real CAS-005 exam. Expert-level architecture, engineering, operations and GRC scenarios, answers explained, and your score by domain.

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90 questions · 2 hours 45 min · same as the real exam

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Questions 1–10Page 1 of 9
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Question 1Security Engineering

Several Linux servers recently joined to Active Directory at Corriveau Foods intermittently fail Kerberos authentication with a 'clock skew too great' error, while Windows hosts work normally. What should the administrator do?

Correct answer: A. Point the Linux hosts at the domain's NTP time source
Kerberos rejects tickets when client and KDC clocks differ by more than the allowed tolerance, which defaults to five minutes in Active Directory. Recreating computer accounts or SPNs fixes identity problems, not time problems.
Question 2Security Architecture

Ardent Payments' load balancer uses TCP port checks to decide whether web nodes are healthy. Last week a node's database connection pool failed, and it returned HTTP 500 errors to a third of users for an hour while still passing checks. What is the BEST design change?

Correct answer: C. Use an HTTP health check against an endpoint that tests key dependencies
An application-layer health check that exercises critical dependencies, such as the database, lets the load balancer remove nodes that accept connections but cannot serve requests. Faster TCP checks would still pass because the port stayed open.
Question 3Security Operations

A SIEM rule at Norhaven Group alerts on administrator logins from unusual countries. Most alerts trace to the company's own cloud VPN egress points in other regions. The SOC wants fewer false positives while still catching real foreign logins. What is the BEST improvement?

Correct answer: D. Enrich login events with the known VPN egress ranges and identity context
Enriching events with VPN egress ranges lets the rule tell company infrastructure apart from real foreign sources, which removes the false positives without blinding the rule. A count threshold cuts noise but would miss an attacker who needs only one or two logins.
Question 4Governance, Risk & Compliance

A board wants a framework that aligns IT with enterprise goals, separates governance from management, and defines objectives and metrics for IT performance. Which framework BEST fits this need?

Correct answer: D. COBIT
COBIT is an IT governance and management framework that links IT objectives to enterprise goals and clearly separates governance from management. ITIL focuses on IT service management practices, not board-level governance.
Question 5Security Engineering

After domain controllers at Ashgrove Credit Union began requiring LDAP signing, a legacy HR application that binds on port 389 with simple authentication stopped syncing users. What is the MOST secure way to restore the integration?

Correct answer: B. Configure the application to use LDAPS on port 636 or StartTLS
Simple binds over cleartext LDAP send credentials unprotected, so the fix is to wrap the session in TLS using LDAPS or StartTLS. Turning off the signing requirement would reopen the exposure the change was meant to close.
Question 6Security Architecture

Saltmarsh Media routes its site through a CDN with an integrated WAF. A penetration test found the origin servers' public IP addresses in old DNS records and sent attacks straight to the origin, bypassing the WAF. Which action BEST fixes the design flaw?

Correct answer: B. Accept origin traffic only from the CDN, using mutual TLS
The origin must refuse any traffic that did not pass through the CDN, for example by allowing only CDN source ranges and requiring a client certificate. Changing IP addresses only hides the origin until the new address leaks again.
Question 7Security Operations

An analyst at Garrow Pharma notices that one workstation sends thousands of DNS TXT queries per hour with long, random-looking subdomains to a single domain. Other hosts send a few dozen. Which analytic would BEST detect this pattern across the fleet?

Correct answer: D. Compare per-host query volume and subdomain entropy against a baseline
DNS tunneling shows high query volume and long, high-entropy subdomains, so per-host baselines of volume and entropy expose it. Registration country is a weak signal with many false positives and says nothing about the tunneling behavior itself.
Question 8Governance, Risk & Compliance

An audit finds that 30% of production Linux servers differ from the approved hardened baseline, and no one can explain the changes. Which practice MOST directly prevents this from recurring?

Correct answer: C. Drift detection tied to approved change records
Continuous configuration monitoring compares systems to the baseline and flags any change that lacks an approved change record. Vulnerability scans find known weaknesses but do not reconcile configuration changes against authorized changes.
Question 9Security Engineering

Rydell Manufacturing moved user certificate issuance to a new intermediate CA under the same root. Users with new certificates now fail VPN certificate authentication, while users with older certificates connect normally. What is the MOST likely cause?

Correct answer: B. The new intermediate CA is missing from the VPN trust chain
Only certificates from the new intermediate fail, which points to the gateway being unable to build a chain from those certificates to the trusted root. An expired root would break all users, including those with older certificates.
Question 10Security Architecture

A trading firm requires zero data loss if its primary data center fails and must also survive a regional disaster. The chosen DR region is 1,800 km away, and synchronous writes over that distance would exceed latency limits. Which design BEST meets the requirements?

Correct answer: C. Synchronous copy to a nearby site plus async copy to the far region
Synchronous replication to a site within metro distance gives zero data loss for a data center failure without long-distance latency, and asynchronous replication to the remote region adds regional disaster protection. Direct asynchronous replication cannot guarantee zero data loss because acknowledged writes may not yet have reached the DR copy.
Question 11Security Operations

Pembroke Mining has 40 remote sites with limited bandwidth that drops several times a week. Logs from these sites are often missing in the central SIEM after outages. What is the BEST architectural fix?

Correct answer: A. Deploy local log collectors that filter, compress and buffer events before forwarding
Local collectors store events during outages and forward them when links return, while filtering and compression reduce bandwidth needs. Direct UDP syslog is the opposite of what is needed, since UDP has no delivery guarantee and drops data when the link fails.
Question 12Security Engineering

Penrose Bank is adding facial recognition to its mobile app login. The fraud team is worried that criminals will hold printed photos or replay videos of customers in front of the camera. Which control BEST addresses this concern?

Correct answer: B. Presentation attack detection with liveness checks
Liveness or presentation attack detection checks for signs of a real, present person, such as depth, motion or skin texture, and rejects photos and replays. Lowering the false rejection threshold makes matching more lenient and would make spoofing easier.
Question 13Governance, Risk & Compliance

A procurement team receives a critical vendor's SOC 2 Type I report dated last month. The CISO says the report is not sufficient on its own. What is the BEST reason?

Correct answer: A. It shows design at a point, not operation over time
A Type I report evaluates whether controls are suitably designed at a single date, while a Type II report tests operating effectiveness over a period, usually 6 to 12 months. Financial reporting controls are the subject of SOC 1, and SOC reports are issued by independent CPA firms, not the vendor.
Question 14Security Architecture

A user at Kestrel Bank signed in with MFA at 9:00 and received tokens valid for eight hours. At 10:30 the EDR platform flagged her laptop as compromised, but she kept accessing SaaS apps until her tokens expired. Which zero trust capability is missing?

Correct answer: C. Continuous evaluation that revokes sessions on new risk signals
Zero trust calls for continuous verification, so device risk signals from EDR should feed the policy engine and trigger session or token revocation as soon as posture changes. Stronger initial MFA does nothing about a device that becomes compromised after sign-in.
Question 15Security Engineering

Tamsin Analytics automated monthly rotation of a database password stored in its secrets manager. On rotation day, application servers that cache the credential at startup fail until they are restarted. Which change BEST prevents the outage while keeping rotation?

Correct answer: D. Rotate with two valid credentials and an overlap period
Alternating between two credentials keeps the old one valid until all clients have picked up the new one, so cached values do not cause failures. Restarting every server after each rotation causes its own downtime and does not scale.
Question 16Security Operations

The SOC at Weston Financial receives over 4,000 low-severity alerts a day and misses real attacks that appear as several small signals on one host. Which approach BEST improves prioritization?

Correct answer: D. Use risk-based alerting that sums risk scores per entity and alerts at a threshold
Risk-based alerting adds up weak signals for each user or host and only raises an alert when the combined risk crosses a threshold, so related small events surface together. Disabling low-severity rules cuts volume but throws away the very signals that reveal multi-step attacks.
Question 17Security Architecture

A university is moving its campus network to an SDN design in which a central controller programs all switches. The risk committee asks which new design concern deserves the MOST attention compared with the old distributed network. What should the architect identify?

Correct answer: A. The controller is a high-value target that needs hardening and HA
Centralizing control means compromise or failure of the controller affects the whole network, so it needs strong authentication on its northbound and southbound interfaces, RBAC and a redundant cluster. SDN does not remove line-rate forwarding or VLAN support, since the data plane still uses switch hardware.
Question 18Governance, Risk & Compliance

A merchant outsources card processing to a service provider that stores cardholder data on its behalf. To meet its PCI DSS obligation to monitor the provider's compliance, what should the merchant obtain each year?

Correct answer: B. The provider's current Attestation of Compliance
The Attestation of Compliance is the formal PCI DSS evidence that a service provider has been assessed, and merchants review it annually as part of monitoring service providers. An ISO 27001 certificate shows a management system exists but does not confirm PCI DSS compliance.
Question 19Security Engineering

Engineers at Marchetti Logistics run a shared Kubernetes cluster. Security wants to stop any workload from being deployed if it runs as privileged, mounts the host file system, or uses an image that is not signed by the internal build pipeline. Which control BEST enforces this at deployment time?

Correct answer: D. An admission controller enforcing policy on every deployment
An admission controller evaluates each request before the object is created, so non-compliant pods are rejected rather than detected later. Network policies control traffic between pods but do not inspect privilege settings or image signatures.
Question 20Security Operations

A penetration test at Ashcombe Travel finds SQL injection in a search feature that builds queries by joining user input into strings. Which remediation BEST removes the weakness?

Correct answer: C. Use parameterized queries so input is always treated as data
Parameterized queries keep the SQL structure separate from user data, so input can never change the query logic. A WAF is the tempting choice and helps as defense in depth, but it relies on patterns that attackers can often evade, leaving the flaw in the code.
Question 21Security Architecture

A manufacturer must apply zero trust access to a legacy internal web app that supports only basic authentication and cannot be modified. Remote and on-site users must be verified with MFA and device posture before reaching it. Which design is MOST appropriate?

Correct answer: A. Front the app with an identity-aware proxy acting as the PEP
An identity-aware proxy can act as the policy enforcement point, checking identity, MFA and posture with the policy engine before forwarding requests to an app that cannot change. Rewriting the login page is ruled out because the application cannot be modified.
Question 22Security Engineering

Ketterly Insurance deployed application allow listing with a rule that permits any executable in each user's AppData folder. A red team still ran its own tools on several laptops. What is the BEST fix?

Correct answer: C. Replace the user-writable path rule with publisher or hash rules
Users can write files to AppData, so a path rule there lets anyone drop and run any tool. Publisher or hash rules tie approval to the code itself rather than to a writable location.
Question 23Governance, Risk & Compliance

Internal audit finds that most risk register entries list the security team as owner, including risks for sales and HR systems. Treatment decisions have stalled for months. What change BEST addresses this?

Correct answer: A. Assign each risk to the accountable business leader
Risk owners should be the business leaders who own the affected process or asset and have authority to fund and approve treatment. Inflating ratings distorts the register and still leaves no one with the authority to decide.
Question 24Security Engineering

After a BIOS firmware update was pushed to 300 laptops at Delacroix Partners, every laptop booted to the BitLocker recovery screen. The drives use TPM-only protection. What should the team do before the next firmware rollout?

Correct answer: B. Suspend BitLocker before updating so the key is resealed
BitLocker seals its key to TPM PCR measurements, and a firmware change alters those values, so the TPM refuses to release the key. Suspending protection lets the system reboot and reseal to the new measurements, while clearing the TPM would destroy the sealed key.
Question 25Security Architecture

Rook Commerce runs 120 microservices on Kubernetes. Auditors require encryption of all service-to-service traffic and policies that allow only specific services to call each other based on workload identity rather than IP address. Which design BEST meets this?

Correct answer: A. A service mesh with workload certificates and mTLS authorization
A service mesh gives each workload a cryptographic identity, encrypts east-west traffic with mutual TLS and authorizes calls by service identity. Network policies filter traffic at layers 3 and 4 but do not encrypt it or authenticate workloads cryptographically.
Question 26Security Operations

A secure code review of a legacy C utility at Brannock Systems finds that it reads user input with gets() into a fixed-size buffer. What is the BEST remediation?

Correct answer: C. Replace the call with fgets() using the buffer's size as the limit
gets() has no way to limit input length, so replacing it with a bounded function like fgets() that respects the buffer size removes the overflow. A larger buffer only raises the bar, since input can still exceed any fixed size.
Question 27Governance, Risk & Compliance

The board wants top cyber risks expressed as probable annual loss ranges in dollars instead of red, amber, and green ratings. Which approach BEST meets this request?

Correct answer: B. A FAIR analysis with Monte Carlo simulation
FAIR is a quantitative model that estimates loss event frequency and magnitude, and Monte Carlo simulation produces ranges of probable annual loss in dollars. CVSS rates technical severity of vulnerabilities and does not express business loss.
Question 28Security Engineering

Rosamund Hospital is retiring 2,000 laptops with self-encrypting SSDs and needs to sanitize them quickly so they can be resold. Which method is MOST efficient while still making the data unrecoverable?

Correct answer: D. Cryptographic erase that destroys the media encryption key
A self-encrypting drive stores all data encrypted under a media key, so destroying that key renders the data unreadable in seconds. Degaussing has no effect on flash memory, and multi-pass overwrites are slow and unreliable on SSDs because of wear leveling.
Question 29Security Architecture

Build logs at Halcyon Games show that an internal package name was resolved from the public package registry, where someone had published a package with the same name and a higher version number. Which control BEST prevents this?

Correct answer: A. Resolve internal names only from a scoped private registry
Dependency confusion occurs when a resolver prefers a public package over an internal one with the same name, so internal names must be scoped or pinned to a private registry with public fallback disabled. Commit signing proves who wrote internal code but does not control where the build fetches packages.
Question 30Security Operations

Corriden Health has just acquired a regional clinic chain with poor documentation. Leadership wants to know which internet-facing systems the clinics expose before integrating networks. What is the BEST approach?

Correct answer: B. Use external attack surface discovery from DNS, certificate logs and IP ranges
External discovery that uses DNS records, certificate transparency logs and registered IP ranges finds assets the clinics may not know they own. An internal scan of the known inventory is tempting, but it only covers what is already documented, which is the gap in this case.
Question 31Security Engineering

Following a ransomware incident at Brookvale Logistics, the EDR console showed accurate alerts for every stage of the attack, but no process was stopped. The agents were healthy and tamper protection was on. What is the MOST likely gap?

Correct answer: A. The EDR policy was set to detect-only mode
Accurate alerts with no blocking point to a policy in detect-only or audit mode, which records activity but does not act on it. Missing telemetry would have produced weak or missing alerts, which was not the case.
Question 32Security Architecture

A software vendor wants its deployment systems to verify that every artifact was built by the official pipeline from a specific reviewed commit, not just that it carries a company signature. Which practice BEST provides this?

Correct answer: D. Generate signed build provenance attestations and verify them at deploy
Signed provenance, as described in frameworks such as SLSA, records which builder, source repository and commit produced an artifact, and deployment policy can verify those claims. An SBOM lists the components inside an artifact but does not prove how or where it was built.
Question 33Governance, Risk & Compliance

A factory runs a legacy controller that cannot be patched until a line upgrade in two years. Network isolation and monitoring bring the residual risk within tolerance. What should the security manager do next?

Correct answer: A. Record a formal risk acceptance with an expiry date
When residual risk is within tolerance, the right step is a documented acceptance signed by the risk owner, with a review or expiry date tied to the upgrade. Closing the risk is wrong because the risk still exists and must stay visible and reviewed.
Question 34Security Engineering

A penetration test at Galloway Hosting found that baseboard management controller interfaces on its servers were reachable from the general corporate network with default credentials. Which action BEST reduces this attack surface?

Correct answer: C. Isolate BMC interfaces on a dedicated management network
BMCs give full hardware control even when the host is off, so they belong on a separate management network reachable only by administrators, with default credentials changed. Host OS updates do not address an exposed controller that runs its own firmware.
Question 35Security Operations

A document management platform at Vellum Legal parses untrusted PDF files from clients. The parser is large legacy code with a history of memory corruption bugs, and a rewrite will take a year. Which architectural mitigation BEST limits the impact of a future exploit?

Correct answer: A. Run the parser in a separate low-privilege sandboxed process with restricted access
Sandboxing confines the parser so that a successful memory corruption exploit has few privileges and limited access to the rest of the system. Antivirus scanning helps against known malicious files but will not stop a new exploit against an unknown parser bug.
Question 36Security Architecture

Engineers at Verdant Energy provision cloud resources with Terraform. Several recent deployments created security groups open to 0.0.0.0/0 on management ports before anyone noticed. The team wants to stop these before the resources exist. Which control is MOST effective?

Correct answer: D. Evaluate Terraform plans with policy as code as a CI gate
Policy-as-code checks on the Terraform plan in CI block noncompliant changes before they are applied, which moves detection ahead of deployment. CSPM is a valuable backstop but only detects the misconfiguration after the resource is already live.
Question 37Security Engineering

A company issues Android phones to field staff. Security finds that several users installed APKs from websites, and one of them carried spyware. Which MDM control BEST prevents this?

Correct answer: B. Block unknown sources and allow only a managed app store
Blocking unknown sources stops sideloading, and a managed app store limits installs to vetted apps. Screen lock and encryption protect a lost device but do nothing to stop a user from installing a malicious app.
Question 38Governance, Risk & Compliance

A US clinic plans to store electronic protected health information in a third-party cloud backup service. Under HIPAA, what is REQUIRED before any ePHI is uploaded?

Correct answer: C. A signed business associate agreement
A cloud provider that stores ePHI is a business associate, and HIPAA requires a business associate agreement before it handles that data. HHS does not pre-approve providers, and a SOC 1 report addresses financial reporting controls rather than HIPAA obligations.
Question 39Security Operations

What does the Exploit Prediction Scoring System (EPSS) estimate for a given CVE?

Correct answer: B. The probability that the flaw will be exploited in the wild within the next 30 days
EPSS is a data-driven model that gives the probability of exploitation activity for a CVE over the next 30 days. Technical severity is what CVSS measures, and confirmed exploitation is what the KEV catalog tracks.
Question 40Security Architecture

Redfield Legal's DLP relies on regular expressions and keyword matching. It produces many false positives on routine documents and misses sensitive merger memos that contain no obvious patterns. Which change BEST improves accuracy?

Correct answer: D. Label documents at creation and have DLP policies act on the labels
Persistent classification labels stored in document metadata let DLP enforce policy based on the owner's classification rather than guessing from content patterns. Adding more patterns cannot catch sensitive documents that have no distinctive patterns and tends to increase false positives.
Question 41Security Engineering

Oakmere Bank has thousands of static SSH public keys spread across Linux servers, and nobody can tell which keys belong to departed staff. The security engineer wants access that expires automatically and can be tied to the identity provider. What should the engineer implement?

Correct answer: B. Short-lived SSH certificates issued by an internal SSH CA after SSO login
An SSH certificate authority issues certificates that expire after hours, tied to an SSO login, so access ends automatically and no long-lived keys pile up. Larger keys strengthen cryptography but do nothing about orphaned keys belonging to departed staff.
Question 42Governance, Risk & Compliance

At a publicly traded company, one developer can write code, approve it, and deploy changes to the general ledger application. External auditors cite this as a SOX ITGC deficiency. Which remediation BEST addresses the finding?

Correct answer: C. Require an independent approver for deploys
The deficiency is a lack of segregation of duties in change management, so an independent approval before production deployment is the fix. Static analysis improves code quality but still lets one person push unauthorized changes into a financial system.
Question 43Security Operations

Hollis Aviation's SOC receives an ISAC report marked TLP:AMBER+STRICT. A SOC manager wants to forward it to a managed service provider that monitors Hollis's network. Under TLP 2.0, what is allowed?

Correct answer: A. The report may be shared only within Hollis's own organization
TLP:AMBER+STRICT limits sharing to the recipient's own organization. Plain TLP:AMBER would allow sharing with clients on a need-to-know basis, which is the tempting choice, but the STRICT qualifier removes that permission.
Question 44Security Architecture

A SaaS provider must honor tenant deletion requests within 30 days, but tenant data is spread across databases, caches and immutable backups retained for a year. Which design BEST makes deletion effective across all copies?

Correct answer: D. Use a per-tenant encryption key and destroy that key on deletion
Crypto-shredding encrypts each tenant's data with a unique key, so destroying the key renders every copy unreadable, including immutable backups. Overwriting database rows does not reach the backups or caches.
Question 45Security Engineering

A nuclear power facility must send sensor readings from its safety network to an enterprise monitoring system. Regulators require a physical guarantee that no data or commands can flow back into the safety network. Which control meets this requirement?

Correct answer: A. A unidirectional gateway, often called a data diode
A data diode enforces one-way flow in hardware, so return traffic is physically impossible. A firewall enforces direction through software and configuration, which can be misconfigured or exploited.
Question 46Security Engineering

Cobalt Mining wants an inventory of all devices on its control network. A previous active network scan caused two older PLCs to fault and halt a conveyor. Which approach is MOST appropriate?

Correct answer: C. Passive monitoring of traffic from a SPAN port or network tap
Passive monitoring identifies devices and protocols by observing traffic and sends nothing to fragile controllers. Any active scan, even at night or with credentials, can still crash legacy PLCs that cannot handle unexpected packets.
Question 47Security Architecture

A retailer's analytics team must join customer records from its loyalty, web and store systems, but analysts must not see real email addresses. The join key must be consistent across systems and resist dictionary attacks using known emails. Which technique BEST fits?

Correct answer: D. HMAC of each email using a secret key held in a vault
A keyed HMAC is deterministic, so the same email produces the same pseudonym in every system, and attackers without the secret key cannot hash a list of known emails to reverse it. A plain unsalted hash is also consistent but can be reversed by hashing candidate email addresses.
Question 48Security Operations

A threat hunter at Dunmore Energy collects the list of autostart entries from 12,000 endpoints. She wants to find rare persistence mechanisms that may be malicious. Which technique BEST fits?

Correct answer: D. Stacking the entries and reviewing those that appear on only a few hosts
Stacking, or frequency analysis, counts how often each entry appears, and items on very few hosts are strong leads for investigation. Hash matching only finds already known malware, so it misses custom or new persistence.
Question 49Governance, Risk & Compliance

A retailer shares California website visitors' data with ad partners for cross-context behavioral advertising. Many visitors' browsers send a Global Privacy Control signal. Under the CCPA as amended by the CPRA, how must the retailer treat the signal?

Correct answer: B. Treat it as a valid opt-out of sale or sharing
CCPA regulations require businesses to honor opt-out preference signals such as GPC as a valid request to opt out of the sale or sharing of personal information. Requiring a login or extra steps is not permitted, and the signal is an opt-out, not a deletion request.
Question 50Security Engineering

Attackers keep sending invoices that appear to come from the exact email domain of Brightline Supply. SPF and DKIM are configured, but the DMARC record is set to p=none, and reports show all legitimate senders now pass alignment. What should the email security engineer do NEXT?

Correct answer: C. Move the DMARC policy to quarantine, then to reject
With legitimate senders passing alignment, the domain can safely move from monitoring to enforcement, first quarantine and then reject, so receivers block spoofed mail. Removing SPF or weakening DKIM would make spoofing easier, not harder.
Question 51Security Architecture

Which role is accountable for assigning a classification level to a dataset and approving who may access it?

Correct answer: D. Data owner
The data owner, usually a business leader, is accountable for classifying data and approving access. The custodian implements and maintains the controls the owner specifies, such as backups and permissions, but does not decide the classification.
Question 52Security Operations

Aldine Bank's firewall began blocking connections to a major CDN after a commercial threat feed listed several shared CDN addresses as malicious months ago. Business services broke. What practice BEST prevents this problem?

Correct answer: C. Score indicators by confidence, age them out, and check them against allowlists
IP indicators lose value quickly and can point to shared infrastructure, so confidence scoring, expiry and allowlist checks keep blocking accurate. Manual review of every indicator sounds safe, but it does not scale and still misses the decay problem as indicators age.
Question 53Governance, Risk & Compliance

A marketing analytics team asks for customers' full dates of birth so it can segment campaigns by age group. Which response BEST applies the principle of data minimization?

Correct answer: B. Share an age band field derived from birth dates
Minimization means providing only the data needed for the purpose, and an age band meets the segmentation need without exposing exact birth dates. Removing names is tempting, but full birth dates combined with other fields can still re-identify people and exceed the stated need.
Question 54Security Engineering

An engineer runs this PowerShell fragment: Get-ADUser -Filter 'Enabled -eq $true' -Properties LastLogonDate | Where-Object { $_.LastLogonDate -lt (Get-Date).AddDays(-90) }. What does it return?

Correct answer: C. Enabled accounts with no logon in the last 90 days
The filter selects enabled users, and the Where-Object clause keeps those whose last logon is older than 90 days, which identifies stale accounts to review or disable. Password age would use a different property, such as PasswordLastSet.
Question 55Security Architecture

A nightly batch service at Orion Freight must call an internal inventory API with no user involved. The architect wants OAuth 2.0 access tokens scoped to that service. Which grant type is MOST appropriate?

Correct answer: A. Client credentials
The client credentials grant is designed for machine-to-machine calls where the client acts on its own behalf, authenticating with a secret, certificate or signed assertion. Authorization code with PKCE requires a user to sign in interactively, which a nightly batch job cannot do.
Question 56Security Operations

EDR at Tolland Insurance shows a PowerShell process beaconing to an unknown host, but no malicious file exists on disk. The IR team needs to see the injected code and decrypted configuration. Which analysis is MOST valuable?

Correct answer: B. A memory capture analyzed with a memory forensics framework
Fileless malware lives in memory, so a memory capture can reveal injected code, decrypted strings, process trees and live network connections. A disk image is the tempting choice, but there is no file on disk to recover in this case.
Question 57Security Engineering

During a code review, a security engineer finds requests.get(api_url, headers=auth, verify=False) in a Python script that calls an internal billing API. What is the main risk?

Correct answer: A. It skips TLS certificate checks, enabling interception
Setting verify=False tells the library to accept any certificate, so an attacker in the path could impersonate the API and capture the credentials. The connection is still encrypted, which is why this flaw is easy to miss.
Question 58Governance, Risk & Compliance

A SaaS company keeps all application logs that contain user IP addresses forever because storage is cheap. Privacy counsel warns that this conflicts with GDPR. What should the company implement?

Correct answer: C. A purpose-based retention schedule with auto-deletion
GDPR's storage limitation principle requires keeping personal data no longer than needed for its purpose, so a defined schedule with automated deletion fixes the issue. Encryption protects confidentiality but does not stop the company from keeping personal data longer than justified.
Question 59Security Architecture

Sign-in logs at Maple Ridge show successful password spray logins to mailboxes even though a conditional access policy requires MFA for all users. Every successful login used IMAP or SMTP with basic authentication. Which change BEST closes the gap?

Correct answer: D. Block legacy authentication protocols with conditional access
Legacy protocols using basic authentication cannot perform interactive MFA, so they bypass MFA policies and must be blocked through conditional access or disabled. A banned password list helps against spraying but does not close the path that skips MFA entirely.
Question 60Security Engineering

Container scans at Tollgate Media show each production image has more than 300 known vulnerabilities, most in OS packages the applications never use. Rebuilds happen weekly. Which change would reduce the vulnerability count the MOST with the least ongoing effort?

Correct answer: D. Rebuild from minimal or distroless base images in the pipeline
Minimal or distroless base images remove unused packages, which eliminates most findings at the source, and the pipeline keeps it automatic. A read-only file system is a good hardening step, but it does not remove the vulnerable packages from the image.
Question 61Security Operations

Legal counsel at Barrow Chemicals expects that evidence from an insider theft case may be used in court. Which practice BEST supports the integrity and admissibility of the collected disk images?

Correct answer: A. Hash each image at acquisition and keep a documented chain of custody
Hashing at acquisition proves the image has not changed, and a chain of custody records who handled the evidence and when. A password-protected archive limits access but does not prove integrity or show who handled the evidence.
Question 62Security Architecture

A defense contractor is rolling out passkeys and must ensure that only FIPS-validated hardware security keys from approved vendors can be registered, not synced software passkeys. Which capability should the IdP enforce at registration?

Correct answer: B. Attestation checked against an approved AAGUID allowlist
WebAuthn attestation lets the authenticator prove its make and model, identified by its AAGUID and backed by a vendor certificate chain, so the IdP can accept only approved hardware. Origin binding protects every passkey against phishing but does not tell the IdP what kind of authenticator created it.
Question 63Governance, Risk & Compliance

A team wants to model every way an attacker could reach the goal of stealing a code-signing key, using AND and OR branches with an estimated cost on each path. Which technique is this?

Correct answer: D. Attack tree analysis
An attack tree places the attacker's goal at the root and breaks it into AND and OR sub-goals that can carry cost, skill or likelihood values. STRIDE per element classifies threats against each system component but does not decompose a single goal into paths.
Question 64Security Engineering

Jessop Financial's SOAR platform blocks malicious IPs by calling the perimeter firewall's API. The integration currently uses a firewall super-admin account. What is the BEST change?

Correct answer: C. Use an API token scoped only to the block list object
A token limited to the block list follows least privilege, so a compromised SOAR platform cannot change other firewall rules. Rotating the super-admin password shortens exposure but leaves the integration with full control of the firewall.
Question 65Security Operations

Investigators at Selwyn Telecom confirm a stealthy intruder with access to several servers. There is no sign of current data theft, and the team believes it has not yet found every foothold. Leadership asks how to contain the threat. Which approach is BEST?

Correct answer: B. Scope fully while monitoring closely, then contain all footholds in one coordinated action
When there is no active data loss, scoping fully and then removing all footholds at once keeps the intruder from noticing early and moving to hidden access. Blocking each host as it is found is tempting, but it warns the intruder and often leads to repeated reinfection.
Question 66Security Architecture

A law firm uses a sanctioned cloud file-sharing service. It must find sensitive files already stored there and detect public sharing links, including activity from unmanaged personal devices that never touch corporate networks. Which CASB deployment BEST fits?

Correct answer: C. API-based CASB connected directly to the SaaS tenant
An API-based CASB connects to the SaaS provider out of band, so it can scan data at rest and review sharing settings regardless of the user's device or network. A forward proxy sees only traffic from managed devices routed through it and cannot scan files already stored.
Question 67Security Engineering

Wexford Networks wants its routers to refuse to run firmware that was modified in transit or by an insider with physical access. Which design feature provides this protection?

Correct answer: A. A hardware root of trust that checks firmware signatures at boot
An immutable root of trust in hardware verifies the firmware signature before running it, so tampered images fail no matter how they were delivered. A published checksum depends on someone checking it manually and does not stop a modified image from booting.
Question 68Governance, Risk & Compliance

An application security team is designing a new API and wants a catalog of known attack patterns against software, such as parameter tampering and injection, to guide design reviews. Which resource is MOST appropriate?

Correct answer: B. MITRE CAPEC
CAPEC catalogs common attack patterns against applications and software, which suits design-time threat modeling. ATT&CK is tempting but focuses on observed adversary tactics and techniques within enterprise environments, largely during and after intrusion.
Question 69Security Engineering

On a Monday morning, internal web apps at Thornbury College begin failing certificate validation. The issuing CAs are online and healthy. Investigation shows that the CRL published by the offline root CA passed its next update time over the weekend. What should the PKI team do?

Correct answer: A. Sign and publish a fresh root CRL, then schedule it before expiry
Clients treat an expired CRL as unusable, so chain validation fails at the revocation check for the issuing CA certificates. Signing a new CRL with the offline root fixes the issue, and a renewal calendar prevents a repeat, while reissuing leaf certificates does not help because the chain still depends on the root CRL.
Question 70Security Architecture

A review of Juniper Travel's serverless application found that all 80 functions share one execution role with read and write access to every table and bucket in the account. One function processes untrusted file uploads. Which change BEST reduces risk?

Correct answer: C. Give each function its own role scoped to the resources it needs
Per-function least-privilege roles mean a compromised upload function can reach only the resources it actually uses, limiting blast radius. A WAF may filter some malicious requests but leaves every function with access to all data if one is compromised.
Question 71Security Operations

Cloud audit logs at Merrow Analytics show an access key belonging to a CI service account making API calls from an unknown IP address. What should the responder do FIRST?

Correct answer: B. Deactivate the access key and review audit logs for every action it performed
Deactivating the key stops further misuse right away, and the audit logs show what the attacker did with it. Deleting the account also stops access, but it can remove context needed for the investigation and break the pipeline without identifying the damage.
Question 72Governance, Risk & Compliance

A fraud detection model retrains weekly on transactions labeled through customer feedback. Analysts notice a coordinated group submitting false not-fraud labels. Which control BEST manages this risk?

Correct answer: D. Vet label provenance and screen for anomalies
This is a data poisoning risk, so the control must protect training data integrity through source validation, outlier detection and review before retraining. Rate limiting the inference API protects the running model from abuse but does nothing about corrupted training labels.
Question 73Security Engineering

Linden Storage encrypts 4 PB of objects using envelope encryption, where each object has its own data key wrapped by a master key in a KMS. Compliance requires annual master key rotation. What is the MOST efficient way to comply?

Correct answer: A. Rotate the master key and rewrap the data keys
In envelope encryption, rotating the key-encryption key only requires rewrapping the small data keys, not touching the bulk data. Re-encrypting 4 PB is costly and is not needed to meet a master key rotation requirement.
Question 74Security Architecture

A company runs workloads on VMs and containers across its data center and two clouds. It needs to detect and block a container that suddenly launches an unexpected shell process or modifies its file system at runtime. Which solution category BEST fits?

Correct answer: B. Cloud workload protection platform
A CWPP protects running workloads across hybrid environments with capabilities such as runtime behavior monitoring, process allowlisting and container drift prevention. A SIEM can collect and correlate alerts but needs a runtime sensor to detect and block the process in the first place.
Question 75Security Operations

Fairleigh Foods is ready to restore servers from backup after a ransomware attack. Which step is MOST important before reconnecting the restored systems to production?

Correct answer: D. Confirm that the backups predate the compromise and validate them in an isolated network
Attackers often sit in an environment before deploying ransomware, so backups must predate the intrusion and be checked in isolation before going live. Restoring the newest backup is tempting for data loss reasons, but it may bring back the attacker's persistence.
Question 76Security Engineering

An auditor at Merriton Bank warns that an attacker recording TLS 1.2 traffic today could decrypt all of it later if the server's RSA private key is ever stolen. The servers currently use RSA key exchange. Which change BEST addresses this?

Correct answer: D. Require ECDHE key exchange cipher suites
Ephemeral ECDHE creates a unique session key for each connection and discards it afterward, so a later key theft cannot decrypt recorded sessions. An HSM makes theft harder, but with RSA key exchange a stolen or misused key would still unlock all recorded traffic.
Question 77Security Architecture

Analytics jobs running in one cloud provider need to read data from a storage service in another provider. Today, a long-lived service account key file from the second provider is kept in a secrets manager. Which design BEST improves security?

Correct answer: A. Federate workload identities to get short-lived access tokens
Workload identity federation lets a workload exchange a token from its own provider for short-lived credentials in the other cloud, removing long-lived keys entirely. Rotation shortens the exposure window but still leaves a static secret that can be stolen and reused.
Question 78Governance, Risk & Compliance

A lender plans to use a machine learning model to approve loans. Regulators require the lender to give every declined applicant the specific reasons for the decision. Which governance requirement is MOST important before deployment?

Correct answer: C. Decisions must be explainable and documented
Adverse action rules require specific reasons, so the model must be explainable, with documentation such as model cards and feature attributions. High accuracy alone does not help if the lender cannot explain why an individual was declined.
Question 79Security Engineering

Arlowe Fintech runs a fraud model on sensitive transaction data in a public cloud. It needs the data protected while being processed, including from the provider's administrators, and it needs near-native performance. Which approach BEST fits?

Correct answer: A. Confidential computing with hardware-based enclaves
Hardware enclaves keep data encrypted in memory and isolated from the host OS and hypervisor while running at close to native speed. Homomorphic encryption also protects data in use, but its heavy performance cost makes it impractical for near-native workloads.
Question 80Security Operations

A sample from a phishing campaign at Lockhart Engineering shows no activity in the automated sandbox. Static analysis shows long sleep calls and checks for virtual machine artifacts. What is the BEST conclusion and next step?

Correct answer: B. The sample is likely sandbox-aware, so rerun it in a hardened setup and add static analysis
Long sleeps and VM checks are classic evasion techniques, so a quiet sandbox run does not mean the file is safe. Running it in a more realistic environment with extended runtime and pairing that with static analysis gives a truer picture of its behavior.
Question 81Security Architecture

A chemical plant runs PLCs that cannot be patched for a known flaw that lets any host on the control network send unauthenticated write commands. Replacement is three years away. Which compensating control is MOST effective?

Correct answer: B. An ICS-aware firewall allowing writes only from engineering stations
A protocol-aware industrial firewall can inspect commands such as Modbus or DNP3 function codes and allow write operations only from authorized engineering workstations. A layer 4 rule cannot distinguish reads from writes because both use the same port.
Question 82Security Engineering

Ravensworth Agency stores diplomatic data that must stay confidential for 25 years and is worried that adversaries are recording traffic now to decrypt it later with quantum computers. Which change should it prioritize for TLS key exchange?

Correct answer: C. Hybrid key exchange combining ECDHE with ML-KEM
Harvest now, decrypt later threatens key exchange, so adding ML-KEM, the NIST FIPS 203 key encapsulation standard, protects recorded sessions even if ECDHE is later broken. ML-DSA protects signatures, which matter for authentication at connection time but do not protect recorded traffic from later decryption.
Question 83Governance, Risk & Compliance

An organization is aligning its program to NIST CSF 2.0. It wants cybersecurity supply chain risk management, roles and responsibilities, and risk strategy oversight grouped under a single function. Which function fits?

Correct answer: B. Govern
CSF 2.0 added the Govern function, which covers organizational context, risk management strategy, roles and cybersecurity supply chain risk management. Identify is tempting because supply chain risk sat there in CSF 1.1, but version 2.0 moved it to Govern.
Question 84Security Operations

Kinross Utilities wants to detect lateral movement inside its server network with very few false positives. Which deception design BEST meets this goal?

Correct answer: D. Decoy hosts in internal server segments that no legitimate user or system needs
Internal decoys have no business purpose, so any connection to them is suspicious and alerts are high fidelity. An internet-facing honeypot collects attacker data, but it sees constant scanning noise and says nothing about movement inside the network.
Question 85Security Architecture

A refinery plans to save costs by connecting its safety instrumented system (SIS) to the same network and controllers as the basic process control system (BPCS) so operators can manage both from one HMI. What is the MOST important architectural concern?

Correct answer: A. The SIS must stay independent so a BPCS fault cannot defeat it
A safety instrumented system is designed as an independent layer of protection, so sharing networks or controllers with the process control system creates a common failure or attack path that could defeat both. Bandwidth and training are operational details that do not address loss of the safety layer.
Question 86Security Engineering

Halloway Trading needs a record showing which manager approved each wire transfer, and an outside auditor must be able to verify it without being able to create approvals. Which mechanism meets this requirement?

Correct answer: C. Digital signatures using each manager's private key
A digital signature is created with a private key only the manager holds and verified with the public key, which provides non-repudiation. An HMAC key shared with the auditor would let the auditor, or any manager, create valid tags, so it cannot prove who approved.
Question 87Governance, Risk & Compliance

Several employees admit approving MFA push prompts they did not start after receiving dozens of them late at night. What is the BEST combined awareness and technical response?

Correct answer: A. Enable number matching and teach users to report
Number matching stops blind approvals, and training users to report unexpected prompts turns them into an early warning that their password is compromised. Moving to SMS codes weakens MFA because SMS is exposed to SIM swapping and interception.
Question 88Security Operations

During static analysis of a suspicious Windows binary, a defender sees that it imports VirtualAllocEx, WriteProcessMemory and CreateRemoteThread. What capability does this MOST likely indicate?

Correct answer: D. Injecting code into another running process
Allocating memory in another process, writing to it and starting a remote thread is the classic API pattern for process injection. Keystroke capture uses different APIs, such as keyboard hooks, so it is a plausible but incorrect reading of these imports.
Question 89Security Architecture

Brightmoor Bank's online banking site was knocked offline twice this year by volumetric attacks exceeding 400 Gbps, far more than its 10 Gbps internet links can carry. The bank wants the site to stay reachable during future attacks. Which design BEST meets this goal?

Correct answer: A. A cloud-based DDoS scrubbing service in front of the site
Volumetric attacks fill the internet links before traffic reaches any on-premises device, so filtering must happen upstream in a scrubbing service with far more capacity. Bigger firewalls or host rate limiting sit behind the saturated links and cannot help.
Question 90Security Engineering

Sterling Corp will issue a subordinate CA certificate to a partner so the partner can issue its own certificates within Sterling's PKI. Sterling must ensure the partner can only issue certificates for partner.example.com. Which certificate extension enforces this?

Correct answer: C. Name constraints
The name constraints extension in a CA certificate limits the namespaces that the CA and any CAs below it can certify. The path length setting in basic constraints limits how many CAs can sit below, not which names they can certify.
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Original practice questions written by CertOcean in the style of the SecurityX exam. They are not real exam questions. SecurityX and CompTIA are trademarks of their owners. Real exam format: up to 90 questions · 165 minutes · pass/fail result with no scaled score · the real exam also has performance-based questions.